Quran is in arabic because it was the language of the people where it was revealed. It does not make sense to reveal it in any other language. Same had been the case with other revelations. It does not mean that Allah prefers one language over another, as all languages are made by man and suffer its own limitations.
How Allah communicates with angels is "...
Well I couldn't find any authentic hadith about the matter, even if among Muslim people the saying that Arabic would be the language of people in Jannah is well known and a kind of consensus. But there's no sahih hadith or Verse in the Qur'an which clearly supports this opinion.
On the other Hand there are ahadith most of them quoted by Imam at-Tabarni and ...
short answer: both are the same words but in different diacritics(tashkeel) تشكيل
both words are the same "Rabb" (رب) but you add different diacritics(A َ, O ُ, E ِ )(tashkeel) تشكيل according to the word position and meaning inside the phrase as the grammar (Nahw) rules says
there are a lot of Nahw rules that governs you how to add the ...
Rabbul Alamin and Rabbil Alamin actually mean the same thing what makes them different is the pronunciation. So actually what makes them different? Simple, Arabic grammar(Nahw) is what makes them different. These are some of the reasons that makes them different.
Fa-il makes a thamma("u" or "oo") sound
A fa-il is someone who is responsible for something ...
The Injil could have been written in Aramaic or Biblical hebrew. but when it comes to current gospel it is a set of 4 injils some written in Greek others in Aramaic and epistles. There were many Injils circulating in the first centuries of christianity the current version has been canonised almost 4 centuries later.
It is a subject of a huge debate as ...
In fact, this claim is absolutely wrong. Allah has lots of names that have been stated in Quran and other supplication from Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) and twelve Imams.
For example, at least 99 names have been mentioned in holy Quran. Or, 1000 names exist in Jowshan Kabir (جوشن کبیر) supplication. And, Quran explicitly says:
وَلِلَّهِ الْأَسْمَاءُ ...
The answer for your letter form question is yes, but to some extent -if you ask from a popular science PoV- and no -if you mean the Qur'an as meant by scholars-!
But first we should make a clear distinction, which even many Muslims -due to lack of knowledge- don't correctly do.
Simply speaking the Qur'an القرآن is the orally transmitted word of God (Allah)....
There are plenty of factors of why we don't have any revelations in most languages. First of all we should understand that we believe in the Prophet Mohammed to be the last Prophet. This gives us:
Many of the languages that exists today, didn't exist for more than 1400 years ago. They have developed into the current language. For instance, Latin has ...
No. There are no other languages that have links to Islam itself. This can be seen easily by doing a Google search for "Islamic languages". They're probably just trying to make a point and doing it badly. In fact, I can disprove it right here. That link shows that the University of Japan in fact offers three courses on Arabic.
As The Prophet Shallallahu 'alaihi wasallam like to hear the Quran, so should we.
Ibn Mas'ud (Radiyallahu 'anhu) reported: The Prophet (Shallallahu
'alaihi wasallam) said to me, 'Recite the Qur’an to me.' I said, 'Ya
Rasoolallah! Shall I recite it to you when it was revealed to you?' He
(Shallallahu 'alaihi wasallam) said, 'I like to hear it from
Briefly, yes, it's permissible to read (not talking about salat) the Quran in english, while not reading the Arabic part.
I think that even if a person reads in Arabic, that person will understand the Quran by his limitations in the Arabic language. Most of the translations are translated from a certain type of understanding of the Arabic language. So, even ...
Surely it is best to understand what the Quran teaches. Prophet Muhammad was a walking Quran. Many of today's translations capture the meaning very well. I translated the Quran, did my best to keep the meaning intact, and made it easy to read. It is posted here: http://www.ClearQuran.com
This expression needed some search ,specially it is 100% fosha, it is not used anymore in modern Arabic.
here the word تربت in the Arabic-Arabic dictionary
and this Arabic Fatwa explained the hadeeth you mentioned. and that is what the fatwa said about the expression تربت يداك
وأما معنى (تربت يداك) فهو في الأصل دعاء معناه: لصقت يداك بالتراب من شدة ...
From your list the only real non independent "wa/وَ" is in
which is a plural form of the verb: وَجَدَ.
In all other posted cases "wa" is an equivalent to "and" and therefore should be considered as a different or independent word. I honestly don't know if there's really any rule saying one should "hang them" on the following word.
The conjunction "وَ" basically means "and" (although this may change by context, e.g. "!والله" (By Allah!)). Unlike English, a conjunction in Arabic is written attached to the subsequent word when it is only one letter long.
So, yes, it can be detached. However, you'd still need to be able to distinguish between a word that starts with the conjunction "وَ" ...
In Arabic, 'wa' (وَ) means 'And', which should be considered as a different word.
In case of almost all of the the presented examples (without وَجَدْتُمُوهُمْ), 'wa' (وَ) should be considered as a different word.
Is it safe if I remove them from those words?
Not from all. As I say, in the presented examples, you can easily remove 'wa' from all of the ...
This answer might be a strong assumption, based on the given data!
First of all the Arabic words used to define transgender are:
مغايرو الهوية الجنسية (~ A person who has changed his/her gender identity).
التحول الجنسي أو التخنث أو مغايرة الجنس:
التحول الجنسي (~the change of the gender)
التخنث (at-takhannut) being a khunta
مغايرة الجنس (~opposition to the ...
No, and the main reason why not is because the Quran is not a written medium. It doesn't matter how it is written. What matters is if it is recited and understood correctly.
Rather, the Qur'an is distinct verses [preserved] within the breasts of those who have been given knowledge. And none reject Our verses except the wrongdoers. (29:49)
There is more ...
There are two pieces of evidence I found as to why the words Ar-Rahman and Ar-Raheem are interpreted the way you mentioned. The first is the word etymology itself, and the second is the linguistic use of both words.
Both Ar-Rahman and Ar-Raheem mean the one who has a lot of mercy.
Ar-Rahman comes in the pattern of "فَعْلَان" and this pattern is ...
My urdu is not the best so I would advise you to verify the text in the below links with a urdu speaking person too:
1) Sahih Bukhari: https://www.urdupoint.com/islam/hadees-books/sahih-bukhari.html
2) Sahih Muslim: https://www.urdupoint.com/islam/hadees-books/sahih-muslim.html
3) Sunan Abi Dawud : https://www.urdupoint.com/islam/hadees-books/sunan-abi-...
I am not aware of any belief that "God does not have a name". And on the face of it, this seems contradictory to several statements from the Quran like 1:1, 2:114, 5:4, 6:118, 6:119, 6:121, 7:180, 11:41, 17:110, 20:8, 22:28, 22:34, 22:36, 22:40, 24:36, 27:30, 55:78, 56:74, 56:96, 59:24, 69:52, 73:8, ...
Hijrah is derived from the Arabic h-j-r (ha, jeem, raa) (هجر).
It has a number of meanings, what is important for this discussion is the meaning of "to give up, to part company with, to abandon, to emigrate, to migrate" (Badawi, Abdul Haleem: Dictionary of Qur'anic Usage, Brill, Boston: 2008)
Therefore, a Hijrah is a rejection or moving away from thing ...
Honestly, I don't think anybody here can answer that question.
I'll try to make some comments around why I think so. I'll start with your points;
3: It can be feasible that he was talking in Arabic, since the language of Paradise seems to be Arabic.
This statement seems to be based on a logical fallacy. The deduction is from the statement "Language of ...
On the whole, according to the evidences, it is not easy to name another language which could be considered as the second language of the Islam. But we name some other languages which relatively are near to Arabic to some extent. Such as Farsi, Urdu and so on.
For instance, I found some words which have used in Quran and according to the source have Farsi(...
If the worshipper can say du’aa’ well in Arabic, it is not permissible
for him to make du’aa’ in any other language.
But if the worshipper is unable to make du’aa’ in Arabic, there is no
reason why he should not make du’aa’ in his own language
Full fatwa: http://islamqa.info/en/20953
About the Tawba every night, you can do it.. And it's something good as in ...
In the name of Allah the most compassionate the most merciful
Muslims ought to say their prayers in Arabic not in other languages. But according to many of Shia Marjas (not all of them), (I am not aware of dear Sunni Marja’s), it would be permissible to say your dua in other language during your Qunoot, Marjas such as Ayatollah Khomeini, Khamenei, Bahjat, …...
If the Du'a is within Salah, then I don't think you can translate it into your language.
But, if the Du'a you're making is after the completion of Salah, Of course Why not?
Yes it is highly suggested that you make Du'a in a language in which you understand in the beginning.
It is (highly) suggested that you learn the literal meaning of the Arabic words of ...