Quran/9/60 - Sahih International
Zakah expenditures are only for the poor and for the needy and for those employed to collect [zakah] and for bringing hearts together [for Islam] and for freeing captives [or slaves] and for those in debt and for the cause of Allah and for the [stranded] traveler - an obligation [imposed] by Allah . And Allah is Knowing and Wise.

What does the bold bit mean, sounds as if a millionaire who collects zakat for the poor and needy is entitled to receive zakat, as it doesn't seem to say for those poor who are employeed to collect zakat, it just says for those employed to collect zakat?

I understand that reading the quran in English can lose it's actual meaning, which is why reason why I am asking for clarification.

Anyone know of a respectable sunni/hanafi fatwa/hadith about this?


1 Answer 1


One of the ways zakat CAN be used is as a compensation of the service to the person collecting the zakat. Just like any other job, it will be considered as a payment. In some countries, it is institutionalized. This will make the institution self-sustaining and withstand coercion from other government departments.

A rich person can choose to provide this service for free, if he wants to.

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .