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It seems Islam's stance on Muslim women marrying non-Muslim men ranges from "forbidden" to "discouraged", and the main argument presented against it is that the future children should be raised Muslim (e.g. https://islam.stackexchange.com/a/1232/17163).

Is it still forbidden/discouraged for a Muslim woman to marry a non-Muslim man in the case that the couple are incapable of producing offspring? Does this change anything?

  • Note that even in case of a (non-Muslim) married couple. Once the wife converts most classical scholars would tend to declare their marriage as void once the wife became a Muslim and "oblige" her to separate from her (former) husband. So there seem to me no way to allow a marriage between a Muslim woman and a non-Muslim. – Sassir Jun 23 '16 at 9:11
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No it's not between "forbidden" and "discouraged", Its "Haram", you can find it in quran 2:221

And do not marry idolaters, unless they have believed

This is not for kids as some people try to explain it, scholars say No "ًWilaya" (guardianship) for infidel on Muslim, that's why a Muslim woman cannot marry a non-Muslim regardless they will have kids or not.

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Under no circumstance has it been allowed for a muslim woman to marry a non-muslim man...Any such act has no islamic sanction and is considered "haram". If she is really desperate for a child and has reasons to believe that it is due her husbands impotence or other reasons, she should seek "khullah" from her husband, complete her iddat and marry some other muslim man...

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