Have classical scholars of Sunni Islam allowed a husband to force his wife into intimacy if she's rejecting without a valid reason (as long as he's gentle and allows her to get herself aroused first so it doesn't hert her).

Among modern day scholars, I've seen those who denounce marital rape as a barbaric atrocity and those who consider it disliked but not a sin.

So I'ld really appreciate fatwas of CLASSICAL SCHOLARS along with supporting textual evidences from Quran and Sunnah (or something else like sahabi's fatwa) with full Arabic Sanad and Matn quoted.

I'm personally inclined towards the position that it's allowed because of the following evidences (which I just thought of myself):

1. The Quran allows one to have intercourse with their spouse in mutlaq (general) terms (e.g. in 23:6). So this should apply to both consensual and non-consensual relations (and in case, the wife argues that this should also apply to her; the answer is no because obedience of the other spouse is obligatory upon her, not the husband).
2. In Shariah, if someone's withholding a right from you it's often permissible to take it by force e.g. I can take my right of revenge by force if someone beats me up or take my money forcefully back from a robber even if this will cause him emotional trauma (because he's guilty of causing the trauma himself!) so why would this ruling not be applicable for the husband taking his right from the wife?

Have classical scholars of Sunni Islam allowed a husband to force his wife into intimacy if she's rejecting without a valid reason (as long as he's gentle and allows her to get herself aroused first so it doesn't hert her).

Among modern day scholars, I've seen those who denounce marital rape as a barbaric atrocity and those who consider it disliked but not a sin.

So I'ld really appreciate fatwas of CLASSICAL SCHOLARS along with supporting textual evidences from Quran and Sunnah (or something else like sahabi's fatwa) with full Arabic Sanad and Matn quoted.

Have classical scholars of Sunni Islam allowed a husband to force his wife into intimacy if she's rejecting without a valid reason (as long as he's gentle and allows her to get herself aroused first so it doesn't hert her). Among modern day scholars, I've seen those who denounce marital rape as a barbaric atrocity (but I fear that they're biased because of modern liberalism) and those who consider it disliked but not a sin. So I'ld really appreciate fatwas of CLASSICAL SCHOLARS (as they were likely unbiased on this issue) along with the the supporting textual evidences from Quran and Sunnah (or something else like sahabi's fatwa) with full Arabic Sanad and Matn quoted. I'm personally inclined towards the position that it's allowed because of the following evidences (which I just thought of myself):

1. The Quran allows one to have intercourse with their spouse in mutlaq (general) terms (e.g. in 23:6). So this should apply to both consensual and non-consensual relations (and in case, the wife argues that this should also apply to her; the answer is no because obedience of the other spouse is obligatory upon her, not the husband).
2. In Shariah, if someone's withholding a right from you it's often permissible to take it by force e.g. I can take my right of revenge by force if someone beats me up or take my money forcefully back from a robber even if this will cause him emotional trauma (because he's guilty of causing the trauma himself!) so why would this ruling not be applicable for the husband taking his right from the wife?

Have classical scholars of Sunni Islam allowed a husband to force his wife into intimacy if she's rejecting without a valid reason (as long as he's gentle and allows her to get herself aroused first so it doesn't hert her). 

Among modern day scholars, I've seen those who denounce marital rape as a barbaric atrocity and those who consider it disliked but not a sin. 

So I'ld really appreciate fatwas of CLASSICAL SCHOLARS along with supporting textual evidences from Quran and Sunnah (or something else like sahabi's fatwa) with full Arabic Sanad and Matn quoted. 

I'm personally inclined towards the position that it's allowed because of the following evidences (which I just thought of myself):

1. The Quran allows one to have intercourse with their spouse in mutlaq (general) terms (e.g. in 23:6). So this should apply to both consensual and non-consensual relations (and in case, the wife argues that this should also apply to her; the answer is no because obedience of the other spouse is obligatory upon her, not the husband).
2. In Shariah, if someone's withholding a right from you it's often permissible to take it by force e.g. I can take my right of revenge by force if someone beats me up or take my money forcefully back from a robber even if this will cause him emotional trauma (because he's guilty of causing the trauma himself!) so why would this ruling not be applicable for the husband taking his right from the wife?

Is it true that Islam allows a husband to force his wife into intimacy if she's rejecting without a valid reason (as long as he's gentle and allows her to get herself aroused first so it doesn't hert her). Among modern day scholars, I've seen those who denounce marital rape as a barbaric atrocity (but I fear that they're biased because of modern liberalism) and those who consider it disliked but not a sin. So I'ld really appreciate fatwas of CLASSICAL SCHOLARS (as they were likely unbiased on this issue) along with the the supporting textual evidences from Quran and Sunnah (or something else like sahabi's fatwa) with full Arabic Sanad and Matn quoted. I'm personally inclined towards the position that it's allowed because of the following evidences (which I just thought of myself):

1. The Quran allows one to have intercourse with their spouse in mutlaq (general) terms (e.g. in 23:6). So this should apply to both consensual and non-consensual relations (and in case, the wife argues that this should also apply to her; the answer is no because obedience of the other spouse is obligatory upon her, not the husband).
2. In Shariah, if someone's withholding a right from you it's often permissible to take it by force e.g. I can take my right of revenge by force if someone beats me up or take my money forcefully back from a robber even if this will cause him emotional trauma (because he's guilty of causing the trauma himself!) so why would this ruling not be applicable for the husband taking his right from the wife?

Have classical scholars of Sunni Islam allowed a husband to force his wife into intimacy if she's rejecting without a valid reason (as long as he's gentle and allows her to get herself aroused first so it doesn't hert her). Among modern day scholars, I've seen those who denounce marital rape as a barbaric atrocity (but I fear that they're biased because of modern liberalism) and those who consider it disliked but not a sin. So I'ld really appreciate fatwas of CLASSICAL SCHOLARS (as they were likely unbiased on this issue) along with the the supporting textual evidences from Quran and Sunnah (or something else like sahabi's fatwa) with full Arabic Sanad and Matn quoted. I'm personally inclined towards the position that it's allowed because of the following evidences (which I just thought of myself):

1. The Quran allows one to have intercourse with their spouse in mutlaq (general) terms (e.g. in 23:6). So this should apply to both consensual and non-consensual relations (and in case, the wife argues that this should also apply to her; the answer is no because obedience of the other spouse is obligatory upon her, not the husband).
2. In Shariah, if someone's withholding a right from you it's often permissible to take it by force e.g. I can take my right of revenge by force if someone beats me up or take my money forcefully back from a robber even if this will cause him emotional trauma (because he's guilty of causing the trauma himself!) so why would this ruling not be applicable for the husband taking his right from the wife?