This question is regarding a justification given to me about EMI.
Suppose I want to buy something which is say worth 100,000$ but I can't afford that much at a time. So the company gives me another option that I may get it now, and I can pay in 6 months but then I'll have to pay 110,000$. They try to make me understand that it is not interest rather inflated price i.e. price after 6 months. The other logic that the company gives me is that suppose there are 2 shops selling the same thing, one sells at 100,000$ and the other sells at 110,000$. You choose to buy it from the latter (costlier shop) because the owner is someone you know or maybe some other personal reason. They say that interest won't be there when I buy from the costlier shop.
Then, they try to make my purchase look just like the above case and they try to justify it in the same way that I should assume that the same company has two shops(offers) one is at 100,000$ and other is at 110,000$. I simply choose to buy from the costlier offer due to my personal bias(More time is given to me for the payment).
But what I feel is that its just a way of justifying interest. Please enlighten me on this.