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My husband divorced me about 2 months ago. We have been discussing and he expressed the wish of taking me back. During our divorce we agreed with the sheikh of our local community that he will pay me a certain amount for the divorce. And he did: He paid it all at once, a week after the divorce.

This money he paid was supposed to cover my expenses during the iddah as I was no longer living in his house and I have loans etc.

I have already had 2 menstrual periods and the last one will come in about 3 weeks. If he decided to take me back, should I return the money to him? If yes, how the amount should be calculated?

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I don't think it should be a matter in marriage. I mean, things like "This is my shar'i right, that is your shar'i right." should not be the case in relationships and marriage. And if you think it should be the case, then you both can think of the mentioned money as mihr. And mihr can be given any time during the marriage.

  • The questioner states that her husband divorced her; the bulk of your answer seems to be speculating that maybe she's not divorced based on absolutely no actual information, and is wholly irrelevant for this answer. Answers are expected to be clear and focussed on the question asked; if the question cannot be answered because of differences in madhahib, it should be closed, not answered. – goldPseudo Nov 14 '15 at 23:05
  • As for the parts that were relevant to the answer, they appear to be nothing but personal opinion, with no actual evidence to back it up. Please see the relevant meta discussion at meta.islam.stackexchange.com/q/598/22 to better understand the sorts of posts we encourage here. – goldPseudo Nov 14 '15 at 23:06

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