Before answering your Questions, I'd like to explain my point of view by answering other questions.
Does Islam allow slavery?
The short answer is:Yes Islam allows slavery!
It is worth pointing out that you do not find any text in the Qur’aan
or Sunnah which enjoins taking others as slaves, whereas there are
dozens of texts in the Qur’aan and the ...
The Quran was written in a certain socio-cultural environment. In that environment and era, slavery was not only common but quite the norm. See Slavery article in Wikipedia for history.
In Arabia, before Islam, non-criminal sexual relationships between sexes comprised of three forms:
Between husband and wife
Out of wedlock and outside of ...
Prostitution is considered haram in Islam. (See IslamWeb for a fatwa on this.)
Sex outside of marriage (zina, or "fornication") is strongly and directly forbidden e.g. in Qur'an 17:32 (...do not approach unlawful sexual intercourse...) and in Sahih al-Bukhari 6810 (...the one who commits an illegal sexual intercourse is not a believer at the time of ...
You are confusing "obtaining slaves" with "enslaving people".
It is right (@Aboudi can read about it here) that Islam restricts the way to enslave people to prisoners of war that are not Muslim, as well as their wives and children.
But that does not mean one cannot buy human beings that are already slaves, effectively "obtaining new slaves".
The verse ...
Having intercourse with a prostitute is forbidden (even through legal means such as marriage) and makes the person who does it a prostitute as well.
الزاني لا ينكح إلا زانية أو مشركة والزانية لا ينكحها إلا زان أو مشرك وحرم ذلك على المؤمنين
The fornicator does not marry except a [female] fornicator or polytheist, and none marries her except a fornicator or a ...
I am assuming that you are referring to Kaffarah (expiation) for fasting in Ramadan. This applies to when you intended to fast but broke it or if you had intercourse during the daytime in Ramadan.
If you did not fast at all and did not have intercourse then the expiation of freeing a slave does not apply, AFAIK, you only need to repent and make up for missed ...
In both ahadith from Jami' at-Tirmdihi al-Mobarakfori or Abdurrahmaan ibn Abdarrahim Mubarakpuri (died 1953) محمد بن عبد الرحمن بن عبد الرحيم المباركفوري in his tohfat al-Ahodi تحفة الأحوذي says that the meaning is that they are like captives, as men have "control over them"
( فإنما هن عوان عندكم ) جمع عانية ، أي أسراء كالأسراء ، شبهن بهن عند ...
A man can have sexual relations with a slave by the following means:
By being the owner of the slave. Any child born this way is free and is equal to a child born through marriage.
By being married to a slave who is not owned by him. A child born through such means follows the status of the mother, i.e. is a slave. However it is possible for the husband to ...
The Islamic legal method of forcing someone to do something is to imprison them until they agree to do it. The punishment for runaway slaves as mentioned in Hidayah:
When the runaway is brought to the sultan, he is to imprison him, but
if the lost slave is brought to him he is not to imprison him. The
reason is that he cannot be sure that the runaway ...
There are no means of getting slaves today, voluntarily or involuntarily. In Adwā' al-Bayān, Vol. 4, pp. 29, Mohammad al-Amīn ash-Shanqīti said that the only venue for right-hand possession is through prisoners from wars with disbelievers that are intended for Allah so that Allah's word prevail, this is if the ruler of the Muslim army does not elect to set ...
ملكت أيمانكم (Malakat aymanukum) means those who you own, i.e. slaves. Refer to 4:25, 24:32, 30:28, 16:17, 16:75 etc.
It is permissible for a Muslim man to have sexual relations with a slave woman that he personally owns, without requiring a marriage contract (Nikah) since the exclusive ownership and authority substitutes for that.
And they who guard their ...
Children are blameless as they have no control over the actions of their parents. They are not enslaved as punishment since such a thing is illogical, just because someone gets the short end of the stick does not mean that Islam's intent is to punish them. Rather, the rationale for making it permitted to enslave them is:
The parents are ...
Having sex with a slave that one owns is permissible in Islam as they are "those your right hand possesses" as mentioned in the verses 23:6 and 4:3. The relation is not much different from a normal wife, as the following conditions similar to marriage apply:
Sex may only be had with a slave whom one owns, it is not permitted to have relations with ...
A slave who is a non-muslim living in the Islamic state is a dhimmi and can not be forced to accept Islam. A dhimmi slave however does not pay Jizyah, as Jizyah is only due from adult, sane, free, males.
أن يكون كافرا فيجبره سيده على الإسلام، فلا يجب على الرقيق طاعته في ذلك لأنه لا إكراه في الدين. واستثنى الحليمي من الشافعية أن تكون كافرة غير كتابية ويرغب ...
Medi1Saif's answer is correct. The only mode of enslavement that is permissible under Islam is the enslavement of prisoners of war, if the ruler chooses that.
Islam limited the sources of slaves that existed before the beginning
of the Prophet’s mission to one way only: enslavement through war
which was imposed on kaafir ...
Prostitution is not allowed in Islam, by slaves or otherwise, and the earnings of prostitution are haram.
The Prophet (ﷺ) prohibited the earnings of slave girls (through
prostitution). Saheeh Bukhari
The Prophet (ﷺ) prohibited taking the price of a dog, the earnings of
a soothsayer and the money earned by prostitution. Saheeh Bukhari
In short: If there is a war with a non-muslim entity and the Caliph chooses to enslave the prisoners and grants a slave to a soldier then sexual relations can be had with those slaves and the slave can be sold to other owners who may similarly have sexual relations with them.
Non-muslim prisoners of war can be enslaved if the Caliph chooses that, he can ...
In the name of Allah the merciful the compassionate
O you who believe! retaliation is prescribed for you in the matter of
the slain; the free for the free, and the slave for the slave, and the
female for the female; but if any remission is made to any one by his
(aggrieved) brother, then (the demand for the bloodwit) should be made
according to ...
Actually it should be taken as a combination of two Aayahs (verses),
"O those who believe, the Qisas has been enjoined upon you - freeman
for a freeman, slave for a slave and female for a female. If one is
then forgiven something by his brother, then there is pursuing as
recognized and payment to him in fairness. That is a relief from your
The verse you've quoted yourself is the most explicit reference to "prisoners of war" that I am aware of.
وما ملكت يمينك مما أفاء الله عليك
and those your right hand possesses from what Allah has returned to you [of captives]
— Quran 33:50 ; Word for Word
The verb أفاء is derived from the root فيء , and is used as a synonym for war booty (...
I haven't come across any reference mentioning a legal limitation on the number of slaves. The following are some references that negate any limit, the English text is my personal translation and may contain paraphrasing, mistakes and omissions.
ولا خلاف أن له أن يجمع من العدد من شاء بملك اليمين
There is no difference of opinion that one may keep ...
Prophet Muhammad (ﷺ) said many times الحياء شعبة من الإيمان (modesty is part of faith) and Islamic society upholds modesty and opposes indecencies. Women, whether free or slaves, have never been allowed to be indecent in public because that spreads evils as evident from the past society of the unbelievers. It's said that during the time of Imam Malik some ...
This isn't really a contradiction. Both ahadith do not negate the fact that manumitting slaves is an encouraged and virtuous deed in Islam. Rather they are about special cases where something else takes precedence over this deed.
The first hadith is about Tadbir, where a person declares that his slave would be free after his (owner's) death This is meant to ...
I don't think so because it blatantly contradicts this hadith:
Abu Dawud 2157 Abu Sa’id Al Khudri traced to Prophet (ﷺ) the following statement regarding the captives taken at Atwas. There must be no intercourse with pregnant woman till she gives birth to her child or with the one who is not pregnant till she has had one menstrual period.
Here it mentions ...
In The Name Of Allah (The Most Merciful And The Most Kind)
I already asked this question long before it was posted on Islam Stackexchange. I asked about this from a brother and he gave a very good explanation. May Allah reward him for that.
Here is a brief response:-
The narration you quoted is found in a lesser known Hadith book called Mussanaf Ibn Abi ...
I think the definition of "slave" isn't always "(free) labour by force"
If you read Aristotle speak of slavery.
He does not believe that all citizens of captured cities will assimilate. Some undisciplined minds would not be able to adapt to a new culture, language and doctrines on their own. Since they preferred working with their body instead of their ...
As enslave means: To make someone (a free person) his slave: the answer is no.
Abu Hurairah (May Allah be pleased with him) reported:
The Prophet (ﷺ)
said, "Allah, the Exalted, says: 'I will contend on the Day of
Resurrection against three (types of) people: One who makes a covenant
in My Name and then breaks it; one who sells a free man as a ...
Well it's haraam for Muslims to fight each other and take each others properties.
But besides the scenario, it's permitted to have Muslim/Mumin slaves. Allah speaks about believing slaves in several ayahs of the Quran.
In Surah al-Baqara 2:221 =
And do not marry polytheistic women until they believe. And a believing slave woman is better than a ...
As far as i know -and I'm talking about slave woman in general- there's no consensus about this matter in general.
A Muslim can't in any case have a Muslim slave (it's prohibited), only if she/he converted to Islam -later-: he can only marry a slave woman if she became free as the mulk al-yamyn (right hands possessing) is considered to be a stronger ...
Yes, she can because there is Ijma (consensus) that it is permissible to have intimate relations with slave women, even without marriage, and hence by consensus there is no 'awrah of a slave woman in front of her master هـ, because it follows logically from that permission.
This is proven in the Quran, where they are mentioned besides and separately from ...