As said in my comment above zakat is payable for an amount that reaches the nisab (a fixed amount of equal to a given amount of about 585 grams of silver or about 85 grams of gold, due to the fact that the prices of silver and gold have changed from the time of the prophet () until now scholars have different opinions on what to take as a guidline some say ...
The mehr has nothing to do with the in laws or other family members. The mehr is between the husband and wife only. It is what the wife gets from her husband it is her right and so her personal belonging.
Mehr is wife's personal property, her behaviour described in the question does not change her ownership over her personal belongings.
You may argue in front of the judge (qadhi?) about the inheritance the wife is supposed to get because of the death of her husband. However, inheritance is separate entity from mehr. That's,
Mehr: wife's personal property ...
It is permissible to demand an exorbitantly high amount of mahr.
The evidence is the verse of the Quran which mentions a husband having given excessive dower to his wife:
وآتيتم إحداهن قنطارا فلا تأخذوا منه شيئا
And you have given one of them a great amount [in gifts], do not take [back] from it anything.
— Quran 4:20
There is a tradition that Umar ibn al-...
Note that in Islam scholars say that mahr is not a condition for marriage to be valid. Read for example in al-Mawsu'a al-Fiqhiyya الموسوعة الفقهية:
والمهر ليس شرطاً في عقد الزواج ولا ركنا عند جمهور الفقهاء، وإنما هو أثر من آثاره المترتبة عليه، فإذا تم العقد بدون ذكر مهر صح باتفاق الجمهور، قال الله تعالى:
لاَّ جُنَاحَ عَلَيْكُمْ إِن طَلَّقْتُمُ ...
TL;DR: A husband may refuse khul' regardless of whether or not the wife is capable of repaying the mahr. Among the reasons a husband may refuse khul' is the inability of the wife to pay the husband an agreeable compensation. Ordinarily, khul' requires returning an amount equivalent to the mahr, but the husband can agree to less.
It seems that the mahr is ...
A wife-initiated divorce is called khul', and your in-laws seem to be mistaken about the matter. Yes, a payment is made during khul' (ordinarily the mahr is returned), but there's two other essentials:
The wife agrees (in fact, she initiates it).
The husband agrees.
A Darul Iftaa fatwa explains:
Finally, it should also be remembered that a Khul’ ...
I don't know of any narration or anything that would directly address what you are asking. Likely there isn't. Simply said, men should act fairly among their wives. So my answer is basically my understanding by putting pieces together.
There are things to consider though. Say you are marrying the princess of England and at the same time you are marrying a ...
ALl perfect praise be to Allah
Nikah is a contract between husband and wife, and mahr is agreed upon amount by these 2 persons for this contract to be valid.
There is no mention of mahr to be same for all wives of a person. Nor commanded by Allah in quran or mentioned by his messenger anywhere.
But as of the above mentioned hadees, we can take it as ...