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4 votes

Quranic or linguistic support that قعود is longer than جلوس

First of all both terms are used to express sitting and remaining. Usage of the terms best practice as per linguists As for the correct Arabic usage there's a difference that may not be noticed, but ...
Medi1Saif's user avatar
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3 votes
Accepted

Why does 2:74 use "or"?

"You" is the plural you here. Some of "you" have hearts that have become hardened, being like stones. Some of "you" have hearts that have become hardened, even harder. &...
goldPseudo's user avatar
  • 12.2k
3 votes

If Arabs were no nation, how did Arabic become the language of the Quran?

Before Islam the Arabs were not considered a nation This is not true. The Arabs were considered a coherent tribe (the word nation is a recent notion established in the 19th century CE). They are ...
Jeschu's user avatar
  • 1,756
2 votes

Explanation of Surah 9:64?

The Ayah: They hypocrites are apprehensive lest a surah be revealed about them, informing them of what is in their hearts. Say, "Mock [as you wish]; indeed, Allah will expose that which you fear....
LEGEND's user avatar
  • 162
2 votes
Accepted

Need help with 57:25

Tabari says in his tafsir of ⟪And We did not make the qiblah which you used to face except that We might know who would follow the Messenger from who would turn back on his heels.⟫ (2:143): If a ...
The Z's user avatar
  • 9,494
2 votes

The strength of words related to "coming to someone" in the Quran

Different Sources of Arabic We have three major primary sources of the Arabic language: Usage of the Quran Explanations of the early Muslims Usage of the Arabs, which can be further divided into: a....
The Z's user avatar
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2 votes
Accepted

Why does hamzah lose its seat after interrogative prefix?

The Quranic text we find written in normal mushafs is a product and combination of two aspects of the Quran's tradition of preservation. The first is the rasm (i.e. consonantal skeleton) which was ...
The Z's user avatar
  • 9,494
2 votes

نحن (Nahnu) usage in the Ancient Near-East

Questions about language are off-topic. However the use of a plural noun or pronoun to refer to a single entity is fairly normal. For example: قلنا يا ذا القرنين إما أن تعذب وإما أن تتخذ فيهم حسنا We ...
UmH's user avatar
  • 26.2k
2 votes

What is the most reliable source of Arabic grammar for understanding Quran?

Correction of your statement and explanation of the terms Certainly the qur'an is the first choice to understand the qur'an and its grammar. One could say Arabic grammar needed a standard book or ...
Medi1Saif's user avatar
  • 45k
1 vote

Clarification on "Tawaffa"

It doesn't mean sleep in 39:40. It means take. The مفعول به are the souls, not the person. Allah says He takes the souls in their sleep. This meaning is essentially what is being claimed for Isa AS (...
The Z's user avatar
  • 9,494
1 vote
Accepted

When to use Wa'iyyak vs Wa'iyyakum?

As Salaamu 3laykum, I hope you are doing well. When using Wa-iyyak or Wa-iyyakum it depends who you are addressing. In arabic there are pronouns that are attached and de-attached. In this case these ...
Ahmed's user avatar
  • 336
1 vote
Accepted

Is it correct if we attribute fairness to scientists in this verse?

The phrase قَآئِمًۢا بِٱلْقِسْطِ is hāl (which is a type of grammatical description), and the hāl must match the word it is describing in number. قَآئِمًۢا is singular. ٱلْمَلَـٰٓئِكَةُ (the angels) ...
The Z's user avatar
  • 9,494
1 vote

Do verses 32:5 and 22:47 contradict 70:4?

There are many, many ways of understanding these verses. You could ask about each of these verses alone and you would get full answers of the possible meanings of each of them. But, since you are ...
The Z's user avatar
  • 9,494
1 vote

Why does 2:74 use "or"?

This is a grammar point. "أَوْ" has different uses in Arabic. ref One of its uses refers to types and varieties. In the verse it comes from stone or harder. According to the verses, stones ...
Blue snow's user avatar
  • 105
1 vote

Why does 2:74 use "or"?

It is a style of speech and likes of it are used throughout the Quran not just in 2:74. e.g. in Quran 53:9, Quran 37:147, Quran 16:77 etc.
1 vote
Accepted

Why is rihlata in 106:2 mansoob?

It is mansoob because it is the object of the verb in إِيلَافِ. The word إِيلَافِ is itself a masdar, but it contains a verb inside it in meaning. Masdar, ism faa'il, and ism maf'ool can act like ...
The Z's user avatar
  • 9,494

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