Wherever in the Quran inheritance is on topic we read the similar sentence:
> ... for the male, what is equal to the share of two females ... (see for example [4:11][1] and [4:176][2])

This amount might even differ (increase) in some cases, but is this a kind of injustice towards women?

What is the secrete or logic behind this division?

Note that I've heard a scholar saying that in fact in most situation it is the male who inherits less than the female, I'd be interested in a commentary/explanation on that!


  [1]: http://legacy.quran.com/4/11
  [2]: http://legacy.quran.com/4/176