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Someone mentioned, in a comment on one of my previous questions, that Muslims believe that King David was a Muslim.

Is this indeed the generally held belief across the Muslim world?

How can this be? David was the king of Israel, from the Tribe of Judah, wrote commentary on the Torah and led the Jewish people. Also there is no evidence he was ever in Mecca. If he was Muslim, how can you explain all the historical contradictions?

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    Please read a little bit about Islam before asking your questions: discover.islamway.net/articles.php?article_id=2 has a section on the other messengers and prophets from God that Islam requires belief in. Also islam.about.com/od/prophets/p/prophets.htm – Ansari Oct 8 '13 at 15:16
  • Muslim doesn't refer only to the current generation of Muslims. It's a universal religion and covers all those who were before us. Until the advent of Islam, all those who lived and believed in the previous religions were Muslims(Submitters to God). But after Islam all those religions became abrogated and people were asked to follow the new text brought by the Prophet Muhammad(PUBH). – Noah Oct 9 '13 at 10:04
  • @Noah so everyone following the Torah - like King David - were actually Muslims. But then Muhammad (PBUH) came with a new text from God and asked people to follow it. And those that stuck with the original word from God are no longer Muslims. Am I understanding it correctly? – Curious1 Oct 9 '13 at 14:59
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It is a common misconception that Muhammad somehow "invented" Islam. Rather, the term "Muslim" means one who submits himself to God. King David, who ruled the kingdom of Israel under God's command while still submitting to His authority, was as much a Muslim as Muhammad was.

It has nothing at all to do with being in Mecca.

  • According to that explanation, Jews, Christians, and others who submit to God, would also be referred to as "Muslims", would they not? Why do Muslims refer to people from these groups as infidels? – Curious1 Oct 9 '13 at 14:52
  • @Curious1 If they truly submit to God, then yes they would by definition be Muslims. – goldPseudo Oct 9 '13 at 18:15
  • @Curious1 To truly submit to God, you have to believe in Islam. You can't say you're truly submitting to God when believing in a religion that God doesn't want you to. In the time of King David (PBUH), his religion was the truth. So he really was submitting to God. Over time his teachings were corrupted and nowadays the only Muslims are those who follow the Prophet Muhammad (PBUH). Similarly, during the time of Jesus (PBUH), the only Muslims were those who accepted/followed Jesus; and the same holds for all prophets of God. They all came to correct the true message from God. – Artus Mar 25 '15 at 10:07
  • @Erciyes but the Prophet Muhammad was not alive in the time of King David. How would David know to follow him? – Curious1 Jun 26 '15 at 17:16
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    @Curious1, He followed the commands of God, doing so in itself means he submitted to God, i.e. became a Muslim – Aboudi Mar 29 '16 at 8:00
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King David, also known as Dawood (peace be upon him), was one of the great Prophets of Allah, and he is mentioned in the Quran. And as is known all Prophets came with the same message, and that was Islam, though the practices may defer according to their times their message is theologically the same. Furthermore, Dawood (peace and blessings be upon him) was a Prophet of Bani Isra'eel, and being in Makkah has nothing to do with being Muslim.

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You'll need to read in the old testament of the bible i believe the psalms where david speaks about being in the hills of his fathers house at bacca. This is one of the ancient names of the holy city mecca

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