4

In verse 6-9 of Surat El Noor, the process by which a married man and woman can determine guilt of adultery with no witnesses is described. In this process, the following two ayat stand out:

[El Noor:7] And the fifth [oath will be] that the curse of Allah be upon him [the husband] if he should be among the liars.

[El Noor:9] And the fifth [oath will be] that the wrath of Allah be upon her [the wife] if he was of the truthful.

Why is it that the term "cursed" is used upon men but the term "wrath" upon women? Why wouldn't they both receive equal terms? Why is man different than woman in this case?

0

1 Answer 1

5

In this case, the difference isn't because one's a man and one's a woman, rather it's because one is the one being accused, and one is the accuser.

If the accuser is lying when he accuses his wife, then the worst he is guilty of is lying. However, if the accused is lying when she swears against this accusation, she is not only guilty of lying, but it also means she was actually guilty of the crime which she is being accused of in the first place.

Both the original crime and lying are sins to be sure, but as I see it the difference in punishments called on in the oaths reflects the fact that the lie perpetrated by the accused is even more severe: It not only disparages the accuser, but also prevents the accused from being punished (in this world) for her actual crime.

0

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .