A man had divorce intentions in his heart but didn't say anything. Later, he said a sentence that was a metaphor for divorce, but he was unsure if he had the intention of divorce when he said it.

Will his first intention be counted as continuation (Istis'haab) coming to his speech or not?

As far as I know, Istis'haab (presumption of continuity) applies to the continuation of religious practice, but I'm not sure if it covers other matters as well.


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