Unlike a personal loan, which is typically taken and used in need, business loans are often taken with the express intent of profiting therefrom. Often, a business may choose to go in debt not because it is unable to afford a particular undertaking, rather because the cost and/or risks of taking a loan end up being more profitable than those of reallocating existing assets.
Given that a lender doesn't accept interest on the loan, and under the general principle of "Any loan which brings benefit is riba", is it permissible for the debtor to actually (try to) profit from his use of this money while the actual owner of the property gets nothing of it?
I know that it would be possible to work the transaction such that both parties can share the profit and risk thereof (e.g. musharakah); that's not what the question is about. I am only concerned about the situation where the capital is explicitly a loan.
I am particularly seeking a Hanafi position on this matter, ideally one in which full evidences are presented.