I have two marriage contracts with the same person. The first marriage took place in a foreign country with a lower amount of mehr, and the second contract was executed in our home country with a higher amount of mehr. However, before finalizing the first contract, both parties agreed on the higher amount of haq mehr which is mentioned in the second contract.

The first marriage contract in the foreign country was happened because the marriage court did not permit a higher amount of mehr; there is a maximum limitation on haq mehr in that foreign country. Both our families also live in foreign countries.

We did this to simplify the visa transfer process from the bride's father to the groom. Additionally, at that time, both families could not travel to our home country for other reasons. As a result, the first marriage ceremony occurred in the foreign country, and eight months later, the second marriage took place in our home country.

From an Islamic perspective, I would like to clarify which marriage contract holds validity, whether it is the first or the second. I agree to pay the amount of haq mehr mentioned in the second marriage.

1 Answer 1


In Islam, only one marriage contract is obligatory, and additional marriage contracts are not required. However, having an additional formal marriage with the same person is not prohibited (haram) and does not pose any problem. As you mentioned, your first marriage was formal and did not involve a genuine and intentional agreement. So, the mehr in the second case is genuine and valid.

Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) said:

انما الاعمال بالنيات

Verily, the actions are valued by the intentions


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