I read this article: Is consent necessary for sexual relations with a concubine?
It says that legally it is not. Just for some clarification... given that the female slave had no ability to consent and agree, as she was a slave, then what about if she was aware that intimacy would cause physical harm to her if she were to continue to engage?
Why is this allowed? Does this make assault (rape) legally and islamically permissible in some cases or is assault not allowed in any case?
Edit for clarification: To clarify, if consent is not required legally, then would that make sexual assault legal? Since it would imply that intimacy can occur even if they object to it, e.g. if she refuses due to fear of physical harm