Islam does not allow a person to have intercourse with a pregnant woman that carries someone elses child but apparantly he is allowed if that child is his own. My question is in regards to the following hadiths and part of prophets biography.
Al Kafi – V 5 – The Book of Marriage Ch 126 H 2:
علي بن إبراهيم، عن أبيه، عن النوفلي، عن السكوني، عن أبي عبد الله (عليه السلام) أن رسول الله (صلى الله عليه وآله) دخل على رجل من الأنصار وإذا وليدة عظيمة البطن تختلف فسأل عنها، فقال: اشتريتها يا رسول الله وبها هذا الحبل، قال: أقربتها؟ قال: نعم، قال: أعتق ما في بطنها، قال: يا رسول الله وبما استحق العتق؟ قال: لأن نطفتك غذت سمعه وبصره ولحمه ودمه.
(It has been narrated) from Abu Abdullah that Rasool-Allah went over to a man from the Helpers, and there was a mother with a large belly arguing. So he asked about her, so he said, ‘I bought her, O Rasool-Allah, and with her was this pregnancy’. He said: ‘Did you go near her?’ He said, ‘Yes’. He said: ‘Emancipate whatever is in her belly’. He said, ‘O Rasool-Allah, with what is emancipation deserved?’ He said: ‘Because your seed nourished his hearing, and his vision, and his flesh, and his blood’.
Al Kafi – V 5 – The Book of Marriage Ch 126 H 3: 3 - محمد بن يحيى، عن أحمد بن محمد، عن محمد بن يحيى، عن غياث بن إبراهيم، عن أبي عبد الله (عليه السلام) قال: من جامع أمة حبلى من غيره فعليه أن يعتق ولدها ولا يسترق لأنه شارك فيه الماء تمام الولد.
3 - Muhammad bin Yahya , on the authority of Ahmad bin Muhammad , on the authority of Muhammad bin Yahya , on the authority of Ghiyath bin Ibrahim , on the authority of Abu Abdullah (peace be upon him) who said: Whoever has intercourse with a pregnant female slave with another man must free her child and not become a slave, because he shares the water in him with the fullness of the child
kitab al maghazi al waqidi https://shamela.ws/book/23680/723 "The Messenger of God passed a woman who, at that time, was at the end of her term. He said, “To whom does this woman belong?” It was said, “To so and so.” He said, “Perhaps he sleeps with her?” They said, “Yes.” He said, “How will her son inherit from him when it is not his child? Or will he make him his slave, while he runs under his hearing and his sight? Surely I have in mind to curse him with a curse that will follow him to his grave."
Is it suggesting here that if a man has intercourse with a pregnant slave girl that her child's hearing and sight will be attributed to him even though the child is not his? Isnt this scientifically inaccurate since a fetus cannot be impacted by someone elses "Seed" If this is not the case than what is the reasoning behind the prohibition of having intercourse with a pregnant woman who's child is not yours?
Please shed light on the issue. Thanks in advance.
