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I am a christian but it was presented to me that Islam has a contradictory view of the gospels and I wondered how you view them. I was told some Muslims view them as corrupted because they clearly (especially the gospel according to John) call Jesus the Son of God and the Word and God himself yet the Qu'ran says that Allah has no sons.

The Qu'ran, you believe to be the direct word of God to your prophet, states the Injil (Gospels) are the Word of God and that they cannot be corrupted. So if this is true, why then does the Qu'ran deny the Sonship and deity of Christ?

These are the verses from the Qu'ran which I was given to support the validity of the gospels.

Surah Al-Imran 3:3,4 "...He revealed the Torah and the Gospel [Injil] aforetime, for a guidance to mankind...".

Surah Al-Maidah 5:46 "...We bestowed on him [Isa] the Gospel wherein is guidance and a light, confirming that which was (revealed) before it in the Torah--a guidance and an admonition unto those who ward off (evil)."

Surah Al-Maidah 5:110 "When Allah saith: O Jesus, son of Mary! Remember My favour unto thee and unto thy mother; how I strengthened thee with the holy Spirit, so that thou spakest unto mankind in the cradle as in maturity; and how I taught thee the Scripture and Wisdom and the Torah and the Gospel...".

Surah Al-Anam 6:34 "No man can change the words of Allah".

Surah Yunus 10:95 "And if thou (Muhammad) art in doubt concerning that which We reveal unto thee, then question those who read the Scripture (that was) before thee."

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    When I read the currently available Gospel, I noticed that it is more or less based on human views, i.e. what John saw and his views, what Matthew saw and his views etc. The Quran is not like that, it is just the word of God. We believe that the original Gospel was also "just" the word of God. So basically, we do believe in the Gospel as in the actual words of God which Prophet Jesus "spoke out", but we believe that those words seem to have been lost or were not recorded properly or have been corrupted. – oshirowanen Apr 14 '13 at 8:56
  • Also, we do believe that the "word" of God cannot be corrupted, no one ever said anything about written copies of the words of God being immune to corruption. We believe that heavenly copies of the word of God can never be corrupted (copies which humans do not have access to as they are with God), human copies of the word of God are always open to corruption. As for the human copy of the quran (a.k.a mus'haf), have a look at this question: islam.stackexchange.com/questions/2180/… – oshirowanen Apr 14 '13 at 10:07
  • You make a good point, and no one has yet been able to answer it: 1. The Torah/Gospel was revealed by Allah (Surah 3:3-4 2. No one can change the words of Allah (Surah 6:34) 3. The Bible is corrupted (??) If "No one can change the words of Allah", then by definition, the Bible has not been corrupted. Furthermore, Allah instructs Christians/Jews in Surah 5:47 to "Judge by what we [Allah] hath revealed to you" (aka the Torah & the Gospel), how could they do this if it has been corrupted? – Klutch Aug 22 '14 at 16:17
  • Prev. comment cont'd (by Klutch): "2 and 3 cannot both be true, and since I'm not aware of a Qur'anic passage explicitly saying "The Bible is corrupted", #2 is the correct passage and #3 is false." – Ansari Aug 22 '14 at 20:23
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At a very basic level, you are working with a different definition of the term "Incil" than a Muslim would. To a Christian the term is used in one of two senses: a very general sense of "good news" referring to the story of Jesus and the salvitic work he accomplished here on earth and a much more specific sense of one or more of the the physical texts passed down from eyewitness that are testimonies to Jesus life and work.

Neither of these are the sense in which Islam uses the term. To a Muslim, the term "Incil" is typically used to refer to a specific revealed text and it's specific message. They believe that the gospel books that we have in the Christian New Testament are not this text: that they may include parts of it but that the original was not preserved.

As such, it is unclear what would be nullified because they don't believe we know what the content of the original was.

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O People of the Scripture, do not commit excess in your religion or say about Allah except the truth. The Messiah, Jesus, the son of Mary, was but a messenger of Allah and His word which He directed to Mary and a soul [created at a command] from Him. So believe in Allah and His messengers. And do not say, "Three"; desist - it is better for you. Indeed, Allah is but one God. Exalted is He above having a son. To Him belongs whatever is in the heavens and whatever is on the earth. And sufficient is Allah as Disposer of affairs.
[An-Nisa' 171]

They have certainly disbelieved who say, " Allah is the Messiah, the son of Mary" while the Messiah has said, "O Children of Israel, worship Allah , my Lord and your Lord." Indeed, he who associates others with Allah - Allah has forbidden him Paradise, and his refuge is the Fire. And there are not for the wrongdoers any helpers.
[Al-Ma'idah 72]

First, I'll tackle the easiest part of your question, namely "Why then does the Qu'ran deny the Sonship and deity of Christ?" The answer is simple; the Qur'an is from God, the All-Seeing, the All-Knowing. He, above any mortal knowledge, knows who best is (or is not) a God or a son of God.

So, given that He says so quite clearly, we obviously don't believe that Christ Jesus was God, nor was he the Son of God. At least not literally.

Regarding the "Son of God" issue, I do know that the same or similar terms have been used throughout the bible, and these are not (to my knowledge) taken in any literal sense. For example, according to Moses Israel is God's first-born son, which is commonly understood to mean that the Israelites were held dearly to Him (as a first-born son is held dearly to his father). It does not, however, mean that Israel was somehow begotten from the Almighty.

And according to Paul, all Christians are "children of God".

O you who were given the Scripture, believe in what We have sent down, confirming that which is with you, before We obliterate faces and turn them toward their backs or curse them as We cursed the sabbath-breakers. And ever is the decree of Allah accomplished.
[An-Nisa 47]

The Qur'an confirms the previous messengers and divine revelations; this includes the Torah of Moses and the Injil of Jesus. However, it does not (necessarily) confirm the centuries of doctrine — and especially not the conjecture of fallible man — that developed therefrom.

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    I'm not sure the last bit here is entirely true. At least it's not true in the sense of the words that a Christian hears in these words. My experience with asking Muslim scholars is that what they mean by "confirming the Torah and the Gospels" is not that they actually affirm the exant Torah and the Gospels but that they affirm some abstract version that they believe the above should have been but are not. The thing that they affirm is not the text by those names, it is not something that they can hand you and one can examine the content of as the personal who asked this question has tried. – Caleb Apr 14 '13 at 7:45
  • @Caleb I don't dispute that that's the common interpretation, but that's just it; a common interpretation. The Qur'an does not explicitly make any such claim (closest I can think of is that the Christians "forgot a portion of that of which they were reminded"), but it does explicitly confirm "that which is with you". Whether the extant Bible is textually the same as "that which is with you" (i.e. the Jews and the Christians during the time of the prophet) is probably out of scope for this site. – goldPseudo Apr 14 '13 at 15:34
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    @Caleb I have reworked the last paragraph a bit for clarity; I do agree that "The Gospels" is a rather weak translation for "Injil". – goldPseudo Apr 14 '13 at 15:37

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