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Does Islam allow child slavery? From which age? What are the restrictions?

closed as unclear what you're asking by goldPseudo Mar 27 '15 at 3:27

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    I am concerns about your zeal and interest in making children slaves. Maybe you should get help? You can try here – Bill Coop Apr 3 '13 at 22:03
  • You don't know anything about Islam. You cannot just claim that you know Islam allows this and that. Questions merely based on one's thinking are not welcome here. – Noah Apr 5 '13 at 3:00
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    I don't know why this question is down voted. If you don't have answer then that does not mean question is not legitimate. – Kashif Apr 5 '13 at 12:30
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Islam accepts/accepted slavery because at the time Islam was revealed, slavery was deeply rooted in the community that it couldn't be cleared at once. However, Islam doesn't allow enslaving free peaceful people for any reason, be them Muslim or non-Muslims.

So if someone is free (i.e, not a slave to anyone else) and peaceful, then Islam doesn't allow anyone else to enslave him for any reason.

And that's a general case, there are no specifications regarding age, gender, race, color... etc.

You can read more about the Islamic Views on Slavery, and see other questions in this site about slavery like this one.

  • An addition: I don't think any of the slaves were children. – itsols Sep 24 '13 at 13:47
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    "Islam doesn't allow enslaving free peaceful people for any reason, be them Muslim or non-Muslims." This is wrong since many scholars considered offensive jihad without provocation from the Non-Muslims to be halal or even obligatory. Islam does not outlaw slavery, all it does is restrict whom you can enslave and under what conditions. – G. Bach Mar 16 '17 at 14:49
  • AFAIK, offensive jihad is only present when the target land/state does not allow spreading the word of Islam and fights those who do, only then Muslims are to fight that target state either to force them to allow spreading the word of Islam (and not necessarily become muslims) or to completely take control if they don't accept that in any way. So for example, given a country like Canada which does not participate in any offense on muslim country (AFAIK) and doest not restrict spreading the word of Islam, there's no justification of offensive jihad targeting them at all. – Tamer Shlash Mar 16 '17 at 14:57
  • Also, assuming that muslims fought another state and won the fight, they are not allowed to enslave people who didn't participate in the battle, e.g civilians. – Tamer Shlash Mar 16 '17 at 15:00
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    "Also, assuming that muslims fought another state and won the fight, they are not allowed to enslave people who didn't participate in the battle, e.g civilians." That would suggest no women or children get enslaved because women and children did not participate in battles; this is not what happened, and I'm not aware which fuqaha would say this. On offensive jihad: "not allowing to spread Islam" is not provocation, the Muslims do not allow other religions to prosyletize among Muslims; and many fuqaha explicitly said the caliph has to attack them once a year whether or not they provoke. – G. Bach Mar 16 '17 at 15:19

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