I am Muslim but one thing in Islam is bothering me. Why did the Prophet pbuh gave the opportunity to build a harem? There is no limit to the number of sex slaves one can keep and the wife cannot object husband having sex with the slave Ali RA had 19 Umme Walads isn't it a consumerist or luxuriant or lewdness? It's like a harem of emperors of the Middle Ages. The Prophet pbuh didn't set any limit on having how many sex slaves anyone can keep. so, a simple Muslim can have 100s of sex slaves and make a harem of his own like middle ages
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This feels like a rhetorical question. Just because you think that building a harem is wrong does not make it wrong and others might disagree with your opinions - it only matters what Allah says.– UmHCommented Feb 23, 2023 at 4:23
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if you really want to know the reason, then of course it is because it is intended as a reward and many men would like that. But i suspect you have a moral problem with it. if so, then we must remember the Qur'an. : "The only statement of the believers when they are called to Allah and His Messenger to judge between them is that they say, "We hear and we obey." (24:51) . it is not permissible to criticise something permitted by Islam, and it bearing resemblance to the practise of medieval emperors is no argument against it.– HishamCommented Feb 24, 2023 at 3:20
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2 Answers
The messages received in the Quran and the acts of Muhammad (p.b.u.h) have two aspects:
The Word (Logic, Advice) of God, that is a universal guidance, independent from place and time.
The concrete advice of God to the prophet (p.b.u.h) and his companions in the situation, place and time.
If you ignore either aspect, saying, "it's only a message to Muhammad (p.b.u.h.) and his people in the time", or, "everything is valid for all times and anywhere and independently from all circumstances", you will misunderstand all.
The society around Muhammad was not ripe for the abolition of slavery and - concerning your question - sex slavery.
The plan was thus for the long run, and God is the best planner:
Slavery was not forbidden at once, but it was forbidden to take a Muslim as a slave. That's well explained here:
Are Muslim men allowed to take "sex slaves?"
By this, two problems in the concrete time were solved:
The (perhaps minor) problem that the men who had paid for slaves didn't feel betrayed
The major problem that there wouldn't have been a safe place in particular for the female slaves in the society; the unsafety of women in Arabia around the year 0 A.H. seems to have been a major problem anyway (that's why we face so many prescriptions to improve that!). The life of a freed former sex slave woman would probably have been even more horrible than the life she had.
In the long run, the prescriptions would lead to the abolition of slavery, because it was and is forbidden to enslave any Muslima, so that slavery would be suffocating with the expansion of Islam. Today, slavery has been abolished. This has been achieved now, and it is the Will of God, praise to Him!
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To the anonymous downvoter: Do you mean that God ever supported sex slavery?– JeschuCommented Feb 28, 2023 at 20:28
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The allowance of sex slaves was for the benifit of sexual environment of society and it was necessary for sexual health of muslims. Further it has rules and conditions and not allowed in every case.
It is for the purpose of chastity and guidance and not for the purpose of being a womanizer which is immoral.
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@YoMango Thanks. I said according to what I learnt. I'm not a muslim scholar :( Commented Feb 28, 2023 at 10:41