In Surah 3, Ayah 18 we read:
شَهِدَ ٱللَّهُ أَنَّهُۥ لَآ إِلَـٰهَ إِلَّا هُوَ وَٱلْمَلَـٰٓئِكَةُ وَأُو۟لُوا۟ ٱلْعِلْمِ قَآئِمًۢا بِٱلْقِسْطِ ۚ لَآ إِلَـٰهَ إِلَّا هُوَ ٱلْعَزِيزُ ٱلْحَكِيمُ
And almost any translation that I looked, attributes the قَآئِمًۢا بِٱلْقِسْطِ ۚ
to Allah (SWT).
I am not a native Arab speaker. But I'm learning it and it seems to me that attributing the قَآئِمًۢا بِٱلْقِسْطِ ۚ
to وَأُو۟لُوا۟ ٱلْعِلْمِ
is also possible syntactically.
In other words, is it correct if we assume the وَأُو۟لُوا۟ ٱلْعِلْمِ قَآئِمًۢا بِٱلْقِسْطِ ۚ
to be a noun phrase.
Who else also testifies to the oneness of Allah?
The scientists who are fair (who are not arrogant)
Is this assumption correct grammatically?
ilm
means knowledge. The etymology of science is also knowledge. Thenalim
literally meansscientist
. Of course in those days, the notion of the scientist as we know it today did not exist. But I consider it to be related to someone who knows a lot and ponders about the nature a lot and pursuits the truth.