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In quran.com in surah Nur ayat 33 the word "yukrihhhunna":

يُكْرِههُّنَّ

has a shaddah on the second H/ھ.

However, I saw a manuscript from a friend of mine that has no shaddah on H/ھ.

How could this be?

update

You can see a difference sample in this website, which is one of the well-known resources in Iran:

https://wiki.ahlolbait.com/%D8%A2%DB%8C%D9%87_33_%D8%B3%D9%88%D8%B1%D9%87_%D9%86%D9%88%D8%B1

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6
  • Maybe it's a printing mistake.
    – AbduRahman
    Sep 21, 2022 at 9:15
  • It could be. But for the Quran? In the 21 century?
    – Saeed Neamati
    Sep 21, 2022 at 9:19
  • There are a few low quality publisher which aren't authenticated. It is most likely to happen for locally printed Quran.
    – AbduRahman
    Sep 21, 2022 at 9:25
  • 1
    It can not be an error. This website is a government website with hundreds of scholors writing in it. There must be another explanation.
    – Saeed Neamati
    Sep 25, 2022 at 4:04
  • 1
    The diacritical markings were not originally in the Qur’an anyway so its not a theological issue. Originally, the first Qur’an compiled by Abu Bakr and Zayd Ibn Thabit only had the Rasm. Uthman added the tashkeel in to stop people from mispronouncing the Qur’an
    – Hisham
    Sep 26, 2022 at 2:58

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