They have been put under humiliation [by Allah] wherever they are overtaken, except for a rope [i.e., covenant] from Allah and a rope [i.e., treaty] from the people [i.e., the Muslims]. And they have drawn upon themselves anger from Allah and have been put under destitution. That is because they disbelieved in [i.e., rejected] the verses of Allah and killed the prophets without right. That is because they disobeyed and [habitually] transgressed. (Ali 'Imran [3] : 112)

Why, if there is poverty above them, did many rich Jews live and live in the world? And nowadays their situation has improved a lot and I don't see poverty above them.

And again, are today's Jews to blame for the murder of the prophets?

Please give a normal answer. And people here give answers based on their opinions, and they are without knowledge. So they are also outraged when I ask for a normal answer. Please give a logical answer.


1 Answer 1


The meaning of المَسْكَنَةُ or destitution in this verse has two opinions:

  1. It refers to the jizyah. Meaning, Allah legislated the jizyah through the hands of Muslims for them as punishment. This is the opinion of the majority.

  2. The meaning of destitution is poverty and fearing poverty even when ostensibly rich.

This is from ar-Razi's tafsir.

He goes on to mention the possible objection that the destitution of jizyah occurred after Islam but their ancestors' before Islam killed the prophets. So, how is that possible?

He says: The Jews are responsible for their ancestors' killing of prophets as long as they approve of them or disbelieve in the prophets (since false prophets deserve to be killed so disbelieving in the prophets is essentially saying they agree with their killing).

What prophets did they kill? They tried to kill Isa (AS) and Muhammad (SAW), and even though they failed, they are responsible for killing the prophets for doing their best to do so.

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