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As far as I know in Islam marriage contract is allowed at any age as is mentioned by Imam Ibn Battal and Imam Ibn Hajar but consummation of marriage is allowed only when the girl is able for it.Also that there is a consensus of scholars that the guardian is not allowed to give the bride to the husband untill she is able to consummate the marriage.

So, when Scholars mentioned that consummation of the marriage can only happen when the girl is able for it did the scholars also mean that not only intercourse but also all forms of sexual contact for example kissing or touching with desire is prohibited in case of an early marriage where the bride is both immature by age meaning did not reach puberty and also physically unfit for intercourse?

I always thought the case was that all forms of sexual contact with immature girl with whom marriage contract was done was forbidden and by immature I mean who is not both able to have intercourse and also did not reach puberty but some people(i.e mostly christians trying confuse muslims)have been saying it was allowed to enjoy them sexually in other ways and only that intercourse was forbidden.

I need a clarification on this issue.

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Firstly, A marriage is still valid if sexual intercourse is not taking place.

Secondly, Intimacy is as per the comfort and agreement of the couple.

Thirdly, Either the husband or the wife is demanding sexual intimacy, and the spouse is not making themself available for this, then they have a right to initiate a divorce.

Hence this is a case of mutual understanding and agreement.

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  • To be honest the view that in case of minors by prohibiting consummation the scholars only meant intercourse but allowed other sexual acts is expressed by Christian missionaries to defame islam and it is also the view of Ayatolla khomeni who is a shia. I wanted to know what the scholars truly meant in case of a minor when they said consummation is prohibited did they only mean to prohibit intercourse but allowed other sexual acts or is it all forms of sexual contact which is prohibited because girls can be considered physically mature in Islamic law even before they reach puberty.
    – Samin Yasir
    May 1, 2022 at 17:26
  • What if a prepubescent girl wants to be sexually active? If any scholar puts prohibition or allows sexual intimacy prior to puberty then it must based on her disapproval and approval.
    – Riyaz
    May 1, 2022 at 18:09
  • In islamic law the consent of girls who has not yet reached puberty is deemed unnecessary because her saying yes or no is the same thing so, her wali or guardian is given the right to decide that for her. This is the majority view maybe and the opposite view which is favored by shaykh ibn uthayman I think is the correct one which you stated that this is based on her approval or disapproval.But I wanted to know if the interpretation like Ayatollah exists in our tradition.
    – Samin Yasir
    May 1, 2022 at 22:58
  • @SaminYasir - Who told you that the consent of a girl or boy is not necessary??
    – Ren
    May 31 at 13:50
  • @Ren there are differences of opinion regarding this.Imam ibn Taymiyyah said consent is necessary and if she does not approve of the marriage(after she reaches maturity) then marriage may not happen.For more information:islamweb.net/en/printfatwa.php?id=321292
    – Samin Yasir
    Jun 1 at 16:04

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