How can Qiraat arise if the majority of the Quran was written in the Quraishi Dialect? I previously asked the same question but no reasonable answer. I might have misunderstood the meaning of the Hadeeth:

"If you disagree with Zaid bin Thabit at any point, write in the dialect of Quryaish. Verily, the Quran was revealed in their tongue."

Please, explain it to me, I really dont understand? Also, do we know that Uthman purposely allowed these differences?

  • 1. "If you disagree" means it's only when they disliked or disagreed with Zaid. 2. Even the Quraishis recited with different recitations... There was no such thing as one recitation of Quraish. 3. Even when the mushaf was written according to one dialect, that still allows other people to recite their own recitations as long as it matches the mushaf because the mushaf did not have dots.
    – The Z
    Jan 25, 2022 at 14:17
  • As for whether Uthman (RA) purposely allowed differences, that is certainly implied in his actions when he did not put dots in the mushaf although it was possible. Also, even if he didn't intend for it, doesn't really make a difference to us. As long as the qiraat come from Allah (and they are all authentic and mutawatir), it doesn't make a difference whether Uthman (RA) intended for them to exist.
    – The Z
    Jan 25, 2022 at 14:21
  • It is also evident in the Sahabah's actions when they had no trouble reciting their own recitations when it matched the mushaf (which is how the different recitations spread), and Uthman (RA) never stopped them.
    – The Z
    Jan 25, 2022 at 14:26
  • Interesting. Could it also mean that if the consonantal structure matched the Quraishi dialect then it could be included and if it didn't then the Quraishi dialect it is. Jan 25, 2022 at 15:35
  • Regarding your view if the Quraishis had different recitations... The 7 Ahruf were revealed after the migration and it would be impossible if the Quraishis had different recitations before hijrat Jan 25, 2022 at 15:37

2 Answers 2


The meaning is related to the majority of the Qur'an this is the explanation made by many scholars. If we assume that the Qur'an was revealed in at least seven Arabic languages this would mean that at least 15% was revealed in the language of Quraysh.

However the prophet () transmitted it or it was revealed to him in 7 ahruf. Further this is not a Hadith but a statement of a Sahabi (). Which might end up as an opinion.

  • How can it be? After the migration, the Prophet PBUH still had his Quraishi friends. They could not understand if it was in another dialect. Jan 25, 2022 at 7:19
  • @KhizerKhan if you followed my recommendation to check posts on the qiraat you'd know better. The prophet () was able to recite and speak languages (or dialects) which he had never learned before. In fact the major issue with at least fasih Arabic languages is the difference of meanings of a word in other cases it is rather the pivoting or misplacement or skipping of letters.
    – Medi1Saif
    Jan 25, 2022 at 8:02
  • I know Prophet (PBUH) knew other dialects. I'm not saying that. My question is: How could qiraat (which includes mixture of dialects) arise if the Quran was written in (mainly) ONE dialect? Did Uthman (R.A) say you can recite it in other ways? Jan 25, 2022 at 9:57
  • @KhizerKhan the qur'an was and is not written in one dialect, how often do I need to repeat this?
    – Medi1Saif
    Jan 25, 2022 at 9:58
  • The qur'an was first written and compiled at the time of abu Bakr by Zaid who is not from Quraish it was secondly complied by Zaid + a committee at the time of 'Uthman this time including somebody from Quraish. The qur'an we recite today and which is printed in Moshafs includes many words that were unknown or not used by Quraysh, what other proof do you need?
    – Medi1Saif
    Jan 25, 2022 at 10:10

in reality there are several dialects of Quraiche Arabic that's why several verses of the holy quran have different quiraates

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