this is about this text in quran 5:6 :
ighsiloo wujoohakum waaydiyakum ila almarafiqi waimsahoo biruoosikum waarjulakum ila alkaAAbayni
it can be translated 2 ways:
simple translation of it is as in the "Word for Word" translation:
wash your faces and your hands till the elbows and wipe your heads and your feet till the ankles
other translation is as in this "Umm Muhammad (Sahih International)" translation:
wash your faces and your forearms to the elbows and wipe over your heads and wash your feet to the ankles
see also question 16264.
there are two readings of this verse.
1 – Wa arjulakum (and your feet), with a fathah on the laam. In this case the word “feet” is mentioned in conjunction with the word wajh (face), and the face is to be washed, so the feet are to be washed too. So it is as if the verse is basically saying: “Wash your faces, your arms up to the elbows and your feet up to the ankles, and wipe your heads,” but mention of washing the feet is put after mention of wiping the head so as to indicate that this is the order in which the parts of the body are washed in wudoo’: washing the face, then the arms, then wiping the head, then washing the feet.
2 – Wa arjulikum, with a kasrah on the laam. In this case it is mentioned in conjunction with the word ra’s (head), and the head is to be wiped, so the feet are to be wiped too.
But the Sunnah shows that one may wipe over the feet only when wearing leather slippers or socks, subject to the conditions that are well known in the Sunnah.
so, they say, in case of 1st reading, that sophisticated grammar of connecting the word "waarjulakum" to other words over other branch of sentence should be used.
logic of this is not explained there. i understand its logic this way:
since it is "wujoohakum waaydiyakum", (not "wujoohikum waaydiyikum" and not "wujoohukum waaydiyukum"), "waarjulakum" is together with them because it also has "a" in that place (ie it is not "waarjulikum" or "waarjulukum").
if it is "waarjulikum" it is together with "biruoosikum" because they both have "i" in that position.
do i understand its logic correctly? if so, are there other cases of similar technique in quran, where use of "i" or "a" may connect a word to its "friends" over other branch of sentence? or, at least, cases where both of "i" and "a" could be used, but they are selected to be similar (like in agreement) in "friends" (verbs in coordination). or, if not in quran, are there examples in other old texts? i would like to see that examples as proofs.