0

I know slaves were war criminals and they were placed in homes instead of prisons. Their role in society was to serve their master. It's a very well-known fact that slaves in Islam were given specific rights. In fact, if I am not mistaken, harming or hurting a slave would make them free. Given we consider these two facts if a slave woman wanted, can she reject a direct order from her master to say engage in sexual intimacy? Cuz if not, then she would be forced to do so, but then it would be rape and rape would constitute harm. So what would be the resolution of such a circumstance?

I hope someone can clarify this for me.

7
  • This point already is addressed in Are Muslim men allowed to take sex slaves? – Medi1Saif Jun 1 at 12:36
  • @Medi1Saif Should I looking for the answer in your response in that link? – EPIC Tube HD Jun 1 at 20:00
  • Yes at least you should check whether that answer answers your question or clarify what you are missing. – Medi1Saif Jun 1 at 20:39
  • thank you I will sure check it out – EPIC Tube HD Jun 1 at 20:53
  • 1
    @Medi1Saif I read through you answer and it was helpful. However it didn't quite answer my question. If a female slave didn't want to have sex with the male master what would happen. Let's say there's no haram excuse such as anal or sex during period or illness or being forced....what would happen then? Also if a child is born out of master-slave sexual relationship, is the child born as a slave or free? Cuz we know in islam children born don't bare the burden/sins of the parents. And if one of the parent was a POW, the child don't deserve to be born as a slave. – EPIC Tube HD Jun 2 at 18:48

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.