I know slaves were war criminals and they were placed in homes instead of prisons. Their role in society was to serve their master. It's a very well-known fact that slaves in Islam were given specific rights. In fact, if I am not mistaken, harming or hurting a slave would make them free. Given we consider these two facts if a slave woman wanted, can she reject a direct order from her master to say engage in sexual intimacy? Cuz if not, then she would be forced to do so, but then it would be rape and rape would constitute harm. So what would be the resolution of such a circumstance?
I hope someone can clarify this for me.