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As explained in Is idol destruction a form of religious intolerance?

The verse "Let there be no compulsion in religion" Applies only to the people from whom Jizyah is collected.

So, my question is what is the ruling about non-muslim slaves?

Are they also considered dhimma and their freedom of religion is protected? Or the ruling of freedom of religion does not apply to them?

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A slave who is a non-muslim living in the Islamic state is a dhimmi and can not be forced to accept Islam. A dhimmi slave however does not pay Jizyah, as Jizyah is only due from adult, sane, free, males.

أن يكون كافرا فيجبره سيده على الإسلام، فلا يجب على الرقيق طاعته في ذلك لأنه لا إكراه في الدين. واستثنى الحليمي من الشافعية أن تكون كافرة غير كتابية ويرغب سيدها في الاستمتاع بها، فيجبرها على الإسلام لتحل له، فرأى الحليمي جواز ذلك لإزالة المانع من الوطء، قاسه على جواز إجبارها على إزالة النجاسة وغسل الحيض. والصحيح عند الشافعية خلاف ذلك.

If the slave is a disbeliever and his master coerces him to accept Islam, then it is not obligatory on the slave to obey him in that, for there is no compulsion in religion. And al-Halimi from the Shafi'is has made an exception for a disbelieving woman from a religion other than the people of the book, that when her master wishes to satisfy his desire with her then he can coerce her towards Islam so that she will become lawful for him, and al-Halimi has compared it with the legality of removing other obstacles to sexual intercourse such as coercing her to remove ritual impurities or taking the bath for menstruation. And the correct saying of the Shafi'is is against that.

— Encyclopedia of Islamic Jurisprudence

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  • In the last part of the statement that you mentioned it says that the "Correct saying of Shafi's is against that" does it mean that the correct saying according to Shafi school is against forced conversion for concubinage?
    – Samin Yasir
    Aug 31, 2021 at 4:51
  • Yes, it means that the more correct opinion within the Shafi school is that it is not permitted to force a concubine to accept Islam.
    – UmH
    Aug 31, 2021 at 5:57
  • In the previouse comment, by the word 'concubine' did you also refer to the slave women who are not from the religion of people of book? Because as far as I know only the slave women from the people of book are considered concubine.
    – Samin Yasir
    Dec 9, 2021 at 10:10
  • By concubine I mean a slave woman who has been designated for the purpose of sexual intercourse with her owner. A concubine can be a Muslim, Jewish or Christian according to the majority view (including the Shafi'is), while a minority view is that she can also be from some other religion like a pagan.
    – UmH
    Dec 9, 2021 at 10:41
  • To get a bit more clarification, Imam Al halimi said that except for a slave women from the people of book, you are allowed to force them to accept Islam because they can not be a concubine if they are not muslim or from the religion of people of book but the correct view should be against the opinion of Imam Al halimi that a slave women regardless of her religion cannot be forced to accept Islam as long as they belong to a religion from which Jizaya is accepted.Is that a correct understanding?To be more specific I wanted to know the ruling regarding pagan slaves if they are considered Dhimmi.
    – Samin Yasir
    Dec 9, 2021 at 15:18
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I hope this can answer:

(973)Chapter: Regarding Compelling A Captive To Accept Islam

"When the children of a woman (in pre-Islamic days) did not survive, she took a vow on herself that if her child survives, she would convert it a Jew. When Banu an-Nadir were expelled (from Arabia), there were some children of the Ansar (Helpers) among them. They said: We shall not leave our children. So Allah the Exalted revealed; "Let there be no compulsion in religion. Truth stands out clear from error."

Abu Dawud said: Muqlat means a woman whose children do not survive."

Abu Dawud 2682

Wallahu a'lam

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  • The chapter heading does answer the question but does the narration talk about captives?
    – Samin Yasir
    May 26, 2021 at 9:29

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