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It is reported from ibn Abbas RA that he spotted a mistake in 17:23. His opinion is recorded in the Tafsir of Razi volume 10 page 30:

Maimon bin Mehran narrated from Ibn Abbas that he said: ‘The actual word in this verse was ‘ووصى’ but ‘و’ got mixed with ‘ص’ that is why it is recited as ‘وَقَضَىٰ رَبُّكَ’. Then he said: ‘Had it been fate then none would have disobeyed Allah as it would have been impossible to go against fate of Allah’. This narration was narrated from him by Dahak and Saeed bin Jubair and this is the Qirat of Ali and Abdullah.

I've shared this report, alongside others, before in a different post but haven't got a conclusive answer on this specifically. Can someone help address this issue? Is the current reading as equally authoritative as the reading of ibn Abbas RA? Was he RA unaware of the variant?

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Firstly, you should really come to understand that the current reading is mutawatir, proven without doubt. Some random isnad-less reports from Ibn Abbas (RA) aren't going to suddenly change that in any way.

And why are you so quick to accept the authority of a reading from a random report over the recitation of the Muslims from the time of the Prophet till now in all the Muslim lands from all the 10 qurra through all their different chains?

The Quran, as it has been elaborated many times elsewhere, was revealed in seven ahruf. Even if it were true that this was the recitation of Ibn Abbas (RA), Ali (RA), and Abdullah, it is from one of the ahruf and our reading is from one of the ahruf.

As for what Ibn Abbas (RA) said about the و and the ص, that is simply explainable as him stating that he believes the writers intended ووصى, but people continued to recite وَقَضَىٰ. Because even though the writers may have intended ووصى in Ibn Abbas (RA)'s theory, وَقَضَىٰ still matches the script if you look at it one way.

As for the statements after that, that is simply him showing his reasoning for why he believes ووصى is a better and more understandable recitation in his opinion.

And the only reason people recited وَقَضَىٰ in the first place is because it was a harf recited by their teachers.

There is no logical way one can conclude that people made up وَقَضَىٰ. It was literally the recitation of the Muslims in all Muslim lands from all the qurra.

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