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"....As for the resemblance of the child to its parents: If a man has sexual intercourse with his wife and gets discharge first, the child will resemble the father, and if the woman gets discharge first, the child will resemble her. ...."

Reference : Sahih al-Bukhari 3329 In-book reference : Book 60, Hadith 4

That would mean that if the man had an orgasm first, the child would resemble the man.

But that doesn't make sense, scientifically, it doesn't make any difference who comes first.

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  • This fatwa on islamqa explains this. There are many interpretations of the hadith, some may be wrong based on todays knowledge some not.
    – Medi1Saif
    Mar 15, 2021 at 15:26

3 Answers 3

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Actually the wording of Hadith is “if man’s water dominates woman’s water then child will resemble his father and vice verse”

Egg and sperm cells contains chromosomes and chromosome carry dna codes for different body traits like eye colour, nose shape, hair colour etc. Alleles are the variants of gene, like different eye Color’s. Each parent contributes one allele for a particular trait. Let’s say your mom gave you red hair colour allele and dad gave you black hair Color allele, one allele has to be a dominant allele and hence other has to be recessive. The dominant allele is expressed. So if your fathers allele is dominant over mothers allele your hair colour will resemble your fathers hair colour and vice Versa.

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  • in the lane lexicon it says about the first verb form of SBQ: "..He preceded him; he was, or became, got, went, or came, before him, or ahead of him; he outwent, or outstripped, him; he had, got, or took, precedence of him;" and the same meaning is found in the Sihah of al Jawhari. (approximately 10th century, 370 years after the death of the prophet)
    – Hisham
    Jun 21, 2023 at 19:02
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As far as I know, you should evaluate the authenticity of this hadith with medical science. Not your logic. Human logic once ruled that the sex of the fetus was determined by the woman. Therefore, he was immoral with the woman who gave birth to the girl, and she had to endure the bitter insinuations of those around her about being a girl for the rest of her life. But with the advancement of medical science, the previous theory was rejected and a new theory was proposed that determines the sex of the fetus by male sperm. This rejection of previous scientific theories and the replacement of new theories has been shown many times in various issues. Therefore, we can definitely not rely on scientific theories and reject religious theories as irrational. But as for the theory that whichever mother or father first reaches orgasm, the child becomes like him, science has not yet been able to determine what makes the child resemble a parent. Therefore, it can not reject other theories and show the superstition of this hadith.

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Have you all noticed that the question was "Why does a child resemble its father, and why does it resemble its maternal uncle" The answer of the prophet s.a.w. is "As for the resemblance of the child to its parents: If a man has sexual intercourse with his wife and gets discharge first, the child will resemble the father, and if the woman gets discharge first, the child will resemble her". So the prophet doesnt give an answer to the question why the child resembles its maternal uncle but in stead gives an answer where he adresses the woman in stead of the uncle. Thats a contradiction (the fact of something being the complete opposite of something else or very different from something else, so that one of them must be wrong) in itself.

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