A person owns a barbershop and he gets half of the money earned by the barber. Is this money earned by the owner halal, if this shop allows shaving beard and other impermissible hairstyles? Note that he is only the owner, he is not indulged in the activity of shaving people's beard himself..

  • I guess that there's a kind of contract between barber and owner. And I don't expect somebody to do a business with a person with a contract defining the shares without knowing the kind of business running in his shop this would be foolish and doesn't sound realistic. Therefore it doesn't seem believable that he doesn't know the source of his income.
    – Medi1Saif
    Feb 27 '21 at 15:43
  • islam.stackexchange.com/questions/8654/… may answer the question to a great extent.
    – Jeschu
    Feb 27 '21 at 16:02

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