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It's often claimed that "Islam spread by the sword". I don't buy this, especially when it comes to the early battles as I fully understand that they were in response to aggression from the Quraysh.

However, can we apply the same reasoning to later battles against the Persian and Roman Empires, Egypt, North Africa, etc.? In my understanding, they appear to have been offensive battles to spread Islam and gain ground. I would love to be shown wrong though, and gain a better understanding, إن شاء الله.

I appreciate any help. May Allah reveal the truth to us all, blessing us with correct understanding.

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  • I'd say it depends on the perspective. However the Muslim perspective might be covered and would be on-topic here. Else the question could be a fit for history stackexchange too.
    – Medi1Saif
    Feb 17 '21 at 15:31

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