The statement

"let the rich man spend according to his means; and the man whose resources are restricted, let him spend according to what Allah has given him" (65:7)

isn't quite clear to me. It seems to imply that if a man is rich, then he must buy for his wife and children expensive things that they need and if a man is poor, he should spend according to what he can afford. So does that mean that if I'm a rich man, and I had to get my bad wife and children new phones I must get the iPhone 11 pro max or the latest Samsung since I can afford it? Or whatever food my wife and kids consume, must be very expensive, even when they have being very bad to me? I believe that this statement means that if a man is rich then the least he can provide for his wife and kids is an average lifestyle. Anything above is his choice, and if a man is poor, then he isn't obliged to carry a burden he can't bear. Pls correct me if I'm wrong.

1 Answer 1


If a man is rich, then he must buy ...

This logic does not follow. It's quite possible for a rich man to be a miser.

Secondly, wealth is in more than one sense. There is the wealth of natural gifts and this is part, though not all, of the second instance of the word used.

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