Assalamualaikum a christian wrote the following argument :
George Sale (1697-1736) produced the first complete translation of the Qur’an from Arabic to English in the early 18th century. I have compared it with other modern translations. I have noticed some significant differences in some places. He has word in his text that do not appear in modern English Qur’ans. It is as if whole phrases are missing from modern Qur’ans. Compare :
and We bestowed on them, through our mercy, the gift of prophecy, and children, and wealth; and We caused them to deserve the highest commendations (19:50; George Sale)
And we gave them of Our mercy, and assigned to them a high and true renown (19:50; Pickthall)
The words, “the gift of prophecy, and children, and wealth” are missing in most English translations.
DID SALE USE A DIFFERENT ARABIC MANUSCRIPT OF THE QUR’AN IN HIS TRANSLATION?
I have seen OTHER DIFFERENCES between Pickthall and other translations. When one examines the Arabic, one can see that the difference in Pickthall’s translation from the Arabic can be due to the difference of a letter in the Arabic text used by Pickthall. Compare :
Go, O my sons, and ascertain concerning Joseph and his brother, and despair not of the SPIRIT (roohi) of Allah. Lo! none despaireth of the SPIRIT (roohi) of Allah save disbelieving folk (12:87; Pickthall)
O my sons, go and make inquiry after Joseph and his brother; and despair not of the MERCY (rawhi) of God; for none despaireth of God’s MERCY (rawhi), except the unbelieving people (12:87; George Sale)
The Arabic word is rawhi here. It was most likely roohi in Pickthall’s manuscript. The difference is a vowel. Dhamma or Fatha? (END QUOTE)
Apparently he’s arguing that the Qur’an is not preserved and that the earliest translation i.e. George Sale’s translation has extra words. Also Pickthall’s manuscript is different.
Please shed some light