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I need help with 48:25 below :

They are the ones who disbelieved and obstructed you from al-Masjid al-Haram while the offering was prevented from reaching its place of sacrifice. And if not for believing men and believing women whom you did not know - that you might trample them and there would befall you because of them dishonor without [your] knowledge - [you would have been permitted to enter Makkah]. [This was so] that Allah might admit to His mercy whom He willed. If they had been apart [from them], We would have punished those who disbelieved among them with painful punishment

Why would the killing of women be emphasized when it is confirmed in the Sunnah that women and children are spared during warfare except in night raids?

Why the need for such emphasis unless it is something permissible?

Is the killing of women acceptable? Isn't this a contradiction?

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It is forbidden to kill non-combatant women intentionally or aiming for them specifically.

However people also get killed in the siege of a city without being explicitly targeted due to the weapons, strategies and circumstances of warfare where it is not possible to control who gets killed. For example women may get killed because of getting hit by stray arrows, or because of lack of food and water in a blockade, or because of fire that is set to buildings, or because of getting hit by stones from catapults, or during an ambush in the darkness where their gender is not clear, or because the enemy uses them as human shields, or even because of literally getting trampled by rushing armies etc. Such deaths are not included in the prohibition, as the hadith clarifies:

هم منهم

They are from among them

Bukhari and Muslim

Additionally the verse does not mention killing rather it may also includes other harms that occur in war such being detained, loss of property, death of male relatives etc. All of these would occur to women even if they do not die themselves.

It was to avoid such harm to the Muslim men and women of Makkah that the treaty was made and the war was deferred. The verse does not imply that it was permitted to kill women intentionally, and the sunnah does not imply that non-targeted death and harm to women is forbidden - so there is no contradiction.

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  • The verse mentions "trampled". If you go to quranx, the tafsirs are unanimous that it refers to getting killed. It doesn't make sense bcuz when the women are spared they would wholeheartedly proclaim their faith in Islam which would exclude them from being "trampled" and bcuz it is forbidden to kill or capture a fellow believer. But the verse mentions that they too will be effected which obviously means that they will not have the opportunity to testify their allegiance. Hence it is allowable to kill the disbelieving women.
    – Afiq
    Sep 2 '20 at 17:11
  • @Afiq I have never claimed that it excludes killing, rather that it also means other harms and some tafsirs also mention that. IMO I have already covered your query adequately in the answer, it is not permitted to intentionally kill disbelieving women and the verse does not imply that in any way.
    – UmH
    Sep 2 '20 at 17:17
  • Please read the verse again. Why would put an emphasis on the women unless it is something allowable and intentional? The verse does refer to intentional killing. This would mean that intentional killing of women is allowable at times.
    – Afiq
    Sep 2 '20 at 17:26
  • @Afiq Please provide a sound argument why putting emphasis on it means that it is intentional? And also explain why the hadith of the prophet and the madhabs of the jujrists disagree with your interpretation if the Quran clearly says what you claim.
    – UmH
    Sep 2 '20 at 17:27
  • It does just by reading the verse. It is unambiguous
    – Afiq
    Sep 2 '20 at 17:29
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This verse refers to the events that led up to the treaty of Hudaibiyyah.

In 628 AD, the Prophet (pbuh) had a divine premonition that he would enter Mecca to perform tawaf around the Ka'aba. He and a group of 1400 pilgrims approached Mecca dressed as pilgrims, that is in a state of ihram - which prohibited fighting - and bringing with them sacrificial animals. They carried few arms. They camped outside of Mecca and the Prophet met emissaries from Mecca who wished to prevent their entry. However, the two parties settled on a diplomatic solution after a long discussion rather than warfare and a treaty was drawn up.

At the time, there were quite a number of Muslims in Mecca who were practising Islam in secret due to the persecution they were experiencing. Had there been fighting when the pilgrims entered Mecca there would have been a danger of these men and women being hurt, 'trampled over', in ignorance.

It's this that the verse is referring to. It's not advocating - as you are putting it - the killing of women.

Sources: Wikipedia and Islamic UK Foundation.

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  • You're missing the point. It doesn't make sense to emphasize the women if it was already prohibited to kill them in warfare. The verse is about preventing the Muslims from killing those who are secretly believers among the pagans. That is what the ignorance refers to. It's enjoining the Muslims to not kill men and women among the Quraysh in fear of accidentally killing believers. IF THERE ARE NOT BELIEVERS THEN IT IS OK TO KILL THE WOMEN. Does this mean that women can be killed in warfare and that the prohibition in the Sunnah is optional and can be lifted at times?
    – Afiq
    Sep 2 '20 at 16:41
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The verse is saying to not fight with the none belivers because there are men and women whom may be belivers that you dont know about and that may lead to them dying for nothing

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  • -1: for the spelling mistakes. Sep 2 '20 at 16:09
  • Again why would the prohibition of killing women be emphasized? It doesn't make sense since it was already prohibited. Why the need to emphasize it unless their killing in warfare is allowed?
    – Afiq
    Sep 2 '20 at 16:22
  • Its not phorbiding killing women but it says women may die and thats what happens in war
    – abod sakka
    Sep 4 '20 at 20:29

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