Assalamualaikum, I'd go straight to the point inshAllah.

I'm currently confused: was the original Torah and Injeel available during prophet Muhammad's (SAW) era?

Like for example in verses such as:

  • Al Baqarah 91

“When it is said to them, “Believe in what Allah has revealed,” they say, “We believe in what has been revealed to us” — and they deny what is beyond it, whereas that is the truth which confirms what is with them. Say, “Why then have you been slaying the prophets of Allah earlier, if you were believers?”

  • Aale Imran 70

"O people of the Book, why do you disbelieve in the verses of Allah while you are yourselves witnesses (to those verses)?”

  • Aale Imran 199

“Surely, among the people of the Book there are those who believe in Allah and in what has been sent down to you and what has been sent to them, humbling themselves before Allah. They do not barter away the verses of Allah for paltry (worldly) gains. They have their reward with their Lord. Surely, Allah is swift at reckoning.”

  • Al Maidah 68

Say, “O people of the Book, you have nothing to stand on, unless you uphold the Torah and the Injil and what has been sent down to you from your Lord.” What has been sent down to you from your Lord will certainly make many of the most persistent in rebellion and disbelief. So, do not grieve over the disbelieving people.”

  • Al Maidah 47

“Let the People of the Gospel judge by what God has revealed therein”

The Qur'an also mentioned that the previous scriptures has been changed either by addition, subtraction or by misplacement of words.

So which is the truth? If the previous scriptures were corrupted even during prophet Muhammad (SAW) time, why does the Qur'an tell the ahlul kitab to stand by their books?

I'm a devout Muslim, inshAllah, and I'm learning the Qur'an verse by verse, word by word, just like what we are supposed to do.

Peace be upon everybody, wa-alaikum-salaam

  • Noted, thank you. Do you happen to know the answer to my question brother?
    – user38668
    May 19, 2020 at 21:28
  • This is related and perhaps the answer there also answers your question: islam.stackexchange.com/questions/4253/…
    – The Z
    May 20, 2020 at 6:51
  • Well there are narrations telling us that the Jews - at the time of the prophet - were asked to refer to the Torah to judge based on Allah's orders in it. Others make clear that these orders were not fully nor justly applied at the time. This doesn't contradict to the fact that the Torah was corrupted at all. It only shows that scholars misused Allah's orders. And corrupted them -even if they were clearly stated in the Torah-in the practical life.
    – Medi1Saif
    May 20, 2020 at 16:25


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