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Asalamualaikum.

Are there any verses or proofs that allow general polygamy (in all cases) and answer these questions?

1)Why does the Polygamy Verse state an if condition (IF you FEAR). What about those who don’t have orphans (are not guardians of orphans) or don’t have that ‘fear’ can they still marry 4 Women?

2) Why was the word “yetama” in the Quran (orphans) wrongly translated into “orphan girls” in ‘sahih’ translations and the word “[other]” is Added to make it fit with the Hadith explanation?

If we take these away: “And if you fear that you will not deal justly with the orphans (male and female) then marry those that please you from the females, in twos or threes or fours” This could be that if you have fear you cannot deal with all those orphans you may marry from among them the females.

3) The Quran talks about monogamous relationships throughout & “replacing a wife” not “adding” That exception was made when talking about orphan girls and revealed after a deadly war. Not generally.

4) If this was about Mahr as the Hadith explanation states it to be the reason, why would a man who refuses to pay mahr to only one orphan girl pay mahr to more than one woman or be allowed to marry more women?

5) Most of the women the prophet married were orphans, captives and widows. Not for love or lust. Doesn’t that mean something?

6) Scholars give the reason about men, sexuality and cheating but “Jabir heard Allah's Apostle (may peace be upon him) say: When a woman fascinates any one of you and she captivates his heart, he should go to his wife and have an intercourse with her, for it would repel what he feels” Book 8, Number 3242

7)They also say it’s so every woman marries but we can never make sure all women are married even if there is a man for every woman in world. Prophets companions married widows and orphans for the sole purpose of financially supporting them: Abu Bakr and Umm Ruman For ex not so they’re not “unmarried”.

8)Some famous scholars have said its bec there are more women but as of today ratio is 50.4% to 49.6%. So there are more men than women. It only becomes true when there is war.

9)If even some men married even two wives it would leave a lot of men without wives. How can it be generally allowed in all cases? Since the purpose by scholars is so every woman can get married? What about men? Doesn’t Allah care about them?

Are there any verses or proofs from the Quran (or confirmed sunnah) that allow general polygamy and answer these questions?

Jazakallah

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  • In the stackexchange network question duplicates are disliked (This a copy of your former question here) – Medi1Saif May 17 '20 at 13:22
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The general principle in Islamic jurisprudence, when not dealing with acts of worship, is that everything is halal unless there's evidence showing it to be haram.

The concept of marriage, which included polygynous marriages, was already established in the pre-Islamic period and would've been well-known to the people of the time. The only proof from the Qur'an or confirmed sunnah that is necessary to demonstrate its permissibility is a lack of evidence demonstrating otherwise. I obviously cannot quote that here.

As-written, none of your arguments are relevant to that: They are all simply man-made rationales which on their own are insufficient to make haram what Allah has not.

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  • The Quran teaches what’s right and what’s wrong. The prophet pbuh was sent to the Arabs because what they used to do was wrong and needed guidance. The information we have about the prophet and his companions is that they married widows, captives and orphans for the sole purpose of financial assistance since men are maintainers. We cannot also ignore the if condition of the Quran or context. Your answer has not answered or clarified the points above. But Thank you for your reply and Jazakallah – user38575 May 17 '20 at 11:38
  • @Emmanharazy the qur'an came to abrogate and declare as wrong what is wrong, but there's no word in the qur'an nor the practice of the prophet that has abrogated polygyny. In fact the prophet established it himself. The qur'an only made a limitation where upon many sahabah have separated/divorced some of their wives in order not to have more than 4 wives at once. – Medi1Saif May 17 '20 at 13:21

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