According to Wikipedia, Fatawa Alamgiri states that this is allowed. Would this not contradict Quran 24:33 and Sahih al-Bukhari 6949? Would this not contradict Sunan Abi Dawud 2311?
Is this an explicit statement of Abu Hanifa (rahimullah) and his students or not?
Also is this actually found in Fatawa Alamgiri, Vol I pages 86-88/395-397?
Also, in the Hanafi madhab, according to Fatawa Alamgiri Vol 6, p. 630, is it legal to simply delegitimize a child born to your slave-girl (presumably by you yourself), on your own whim depriving that child of inheritance and lineage?
My question is based off of Fatawa-i Alamgiri/al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya, 6 vols, Beirut: Dar Ihya' al-Turath al-'Arabi, 3rd Edition, (1980). I am not sure if the Arabic or Urdu is being quoted nor that these books actually say this as I cannot read neither Arabic nor Urdu.
Thanks in advance, Jazakallah, and Ramadan Mubarak.
Edit: Also Sunan Abi Dawud 2264, in fact there seems to be numerous ahadith against this.