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According to Wikipedia, Fatawa Alamgiri states that this is allowed. Would this not contradict Quran 24:33 and Sahih al-Bukhari 6949? Would this not contradict Sunan Abi Dawud 2311?

Is this an explicit statement of Abu Hanifa (rahimullah) and his students or not?

Also is this actually found in Fatawa Alamgiri, Vol I pages 86-88/395-397?

Also, in the Hanafi madhab, according to Fatawa Alamgiri Vol 6, p. 630, is it legal to simply delegitimize a child born to your slave-girl (presumably by you yourself), on your own whim depriving that child of inheritance and lineage?

My question is based off of Fatawa-i Alamgiri/al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya, 6 vols, Beirut: Dar Ihya' al-Turath al-'Arabi, 3rd Edition, (1980). I am not sure if the Arabic or Urdu is being quoted nor that these books actually say this as I cannot read neither Arabic nor Urdu.

Thanks in advance, Jazakallah, and Ramadan Mubarak.

Edit: Also Sunan Abi Dawud 2264, in fact there seems to be numerous ahadith against this.

  • I suspect that the author on wikipedia has mixed things up. It is permitted to have relations with one's own slave girl without marriage, and it is permitted to give her to another person in marriage (4:25) – UmH May 4 at 7:04
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Not in the way you think! He can let her marry someone else but if she gets married he can't have sex with her and even if she was his he can't have sex with her unless he announce to witnesses that he is going to make that particular slave as Sareeyah (a sex slave) so that if he dies and she bares a kid from him people would know its his kid. I'm not sure exactly what you have read but de-legitimizing is only if he have an evidence at least for himself that she had sex with someone else. Also, you should distinguish the difference between what is legal in the system and what is legal in front of Allah, so if he de-legitimizing a legitimate child, he is allowed by the law but he will be sinful and would be accounted in front of Allah.

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