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Salam,

I'm young and newly married. My wife and I had been practicing anal sex and by chance i learned it was haram. I immediately stopped practicing. But it has always been consensual and my wife enjoys it more than vaginal sex. Now she's asking for it and i remind her it's haram but she's upset by it.

From what I understand, the reason in Islam it's haram from my googling is that most of the time it's forced/when your wife is on her period. But we use condoms always just for cleanliness as well.

Is it still haram if it's consensual, with both parties enjoying it?

Thank you.

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    "it's haram because most of the time it's forced" , that is entirely baseless, rather it is unconditionally haram.
    – UmH
    Mar 21, 2020 at 5:32
  • It's haram because of the context of sodomy. Also, if I am not mistaken, anal sex is forbidden becuz it's not meant to be used in such a way. Just rationalizing, that this idea prolly comes from the fact of "changing the creation of Allah" or "basically tampering with the natural order or smth"...prolly just the same reason as to why it's forbidden to shave the eyebrow or why men/women aren't meant to take their own sex as partners.
    – EPIC Tube HD
    Jun 11, 2020 at 12:11

2 Answers 2

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It is haram. It is mentioned in both Tirmidhi and Abu dawood. It doesn't matter if she consents. It is haram.

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    This can hardly be regarded as an answer please consider adding source/evidence please! And read How to Answer.
    – Sassir
    Jan 10, 2021 at 15:08
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It’s mentioned in several hadith regarding for-play! On shouldn’t do it without prior play to make the women relaxed and ready! As this could hurt her! How far the play can go, there is no clear Hadith evidence of anything haram!

But from the science point of view, one should not do things that cause spread of disease!

Allah knows best

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  • Consider reading the question before giving an answer that misses the main topic of the question.
    – Medi1Saif ♦
    Mar 25, 2020 at 20:11

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