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According to Sunnis, mut'ah (temporary marriage) was allowed before but later the Prophet salallahu alayhi wassalam abolished it. It is based on the following hadiths (traditions):

In the Two Sahihs, it is recorded that the Leader of the Faithful `Ali bin Abi Talib said, "The Messenger of Allah prohibited Mut'ah marriage and eating the meat of domesticated donkeys on the day of Khaybar (battle).''

In addition, in his Sahih, Muslim recorded that Ar-Rabi' bin Sabrah bin Ma'bad Al-Juhani said that his father said that he accompanied the Messenger of Allah during the conquest of Makkah, and that the Prophet said,

O people! I allowed you the Mut'ah marriage with women before. Now, Allah has prohibited it until the Day of Resurrection. Therefore, anyone who has any women in Mut`ah, let him let them go, and do not take anything from what you have given them.

What is the evidence that the Shia used to allow it?

Are there any conditions to perform Mut'ah? What happens to the woman and her children after the Mut'ah marriage ends?

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    @Ershad, I think it would be more constructive if you remove the part about Sunni view if you want to know why Shia allow it. If you want to know why Shia doesn't accept the Sunni argument that you mention in the post then you should make it more explicit and the answer is more or less what is implied by Gigili, i.e. Shia accept a different set of hadith from Sunni. (In addition I think there are also differences among Shia scholars on this, it depends on which Marja' one follows.)
    – Kaveh
    Jun 25, 2012 at 0:44
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    @HaLaBi - It's a legitimate question. And as long as the tone of the question (and answers) show no disrespect, I see no reason why this sort of question should not be asked. Jun 25, 2012 at 3:02
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    @Kaveh I, no way, intend to disrespect Shi'ah and none of my words show that either. This question is of academic interest. The fact that you mentioned about differences among scholars in Shi'ah is itself very interesting to me. Why I mentioned the Sunni hadiths is for a background information. One can answer this question easily by not calling others "wrong". What I asked for is evidences and its interpretation. Maybe I will understand why the differences about scholars also then. The question is purely academic.
    – Abdullah
    Jun 25, 2012 at 6:27
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    @Ershad, I know, but still it is better to at least make that part shorter IMHO.
    – Kaveh
    Jun 25, 2012 at 7:11
  • A related helpful complete site: al-islam.org/… May 6, 2016 at 6:05

1 Answer 1

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The Hadith attributed to Imam Ali (S.A.) about prohibiting of Mut'ah by the Prophet is not considered authentic by Shia scholars.

Temporary marriage is called Mut'ah in Islam.

All rules of permanent marriage are applied in temporary marriage unless few like a limited time is agreed, the children is for father, the child does not have heir.

According to Quran and saying of prophet temporarily marriage is allowed under special terms. According to the verse 4:24 of Koran (فَمَا اسْتَمْتَعْتُم بِهِ مِنْهُنَّ فَآتُوهُنَّ أُجُورَهُنَّ فَرِيضَةً) temporary marriage is allowed in Islam and the marriage described in this verse cannot be usual marriage. Mut'ah has terms and is only for some especial situations and is much different of harlotry for example a woman who accept Mut'ah should have relation with only her husband and this type of marriage has many terms of usual marriage with few differences. Also Shia believes companions of the Prophet did it when they were in long travels and were alone. Shia believes Mut'ah was allowed at time of the Prophet but Omar banned it.


References and more info:

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  • @infatuated may you clarify why the prophet prohibited it only during that battle?
    – user4456
    Jul 25, 2014 at 15:41
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    @Mhmd, because Mut'a marriage according to Shiite scholars is preserved for certain circumstances e.g. when permanent marriage is not possible while there's a fear of falling into sin. Prolonged wars could be an example of such situations, however, its specific endorsement can be influenced by many other factors, the prohibition on the battle of Khaibar could've been an example of other expediencies overriding the rule.
    – infatuated
    Jul 28, 2014 at 11:25
  • There are in fact many evidences in shi'a sources that oppose to this practice. And only twelver shi'a consider it as lawful. You may refer to this
    – Medi1Saif
    Jul 29, 2019 at 11:25

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