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Assalamualaikum can anyone address 28:48-49?

And yet, now that the truth has come to them from Us (through a Messenger), still they say (by way of an excuse for their denial of it), "Why has he not been granted the like of what Moses was granted (all at once)?" Did they not previously refuse to believe in what had been granted to Moses? They said: "Both are sorcery, each supporting the other." They also said: "In each we are unbelievers." (28:48)

Say (to them): "Then bring another Book from God which would offer better guidance than either of these two so that I may follow it, if you are truthful (in your claim that they are both sorcery)." (28:49)

According to certain Christians, the Qur'an confirms the authenticity of the Torah based on the verses above. According to them, doesn't the fact that the pagans called the recitation of the Torah magical indicate that the scripture is pure, pristine and uncorrupted? If it is corrupted and riddled with human writings and errors then it is not a literary miracle and the pagans shouldn't be amazed by it in the first place. However, they are amazed by it. The second verse state that the pagans were challenged to bring a book better than either of them. Doesn't this show that the Qur'an is supporting the Torah that the Jews of Yathrib were reciting? What else does "book" and "either of them" refer if not the Torah and the Qur'an? The christians argue that this is clear proof that the pagans knew about the Torah, heard how the Jews recited it and charged it as something conjured through magic due to its beauty and eloquence. The Torah, it seems, was present for them to hear it and claim that it was magical. Doesn't this mean that the Qur'an is confirming the Torah at the time and that it's literary style was on par with the Qur'an? Could there have been a party of Jews or Jewish sect who used a different Torah other than the one used by the Pharisees? Was it the true Torah? If yes then what happened to it? How can we explain this?

  • What do you want to say by "How could the pagans reject the magical recitation of the Torah if not the scripture was pure and pristine at the time?". The pagans also rejected the qur'an which was pure and pristine. – Medi1Saif Aug 21 at 7:53
  • I'm saying doesn't the fact that the pagans called the recitation of the Torah magical indicate that the scripture is pure, pristine and uncorrupted? If it is corrupted and riddled with human writings and errors than it is not a literary miracle and the pagans shouldn't be amazed by it. Does this mean that there were a party of Jews or a Jewish sect that had the original Torah at the time? What happened to that Torah? How can we explain this? – Afiq Aug 22 at 8:03
  • First "magical" applies when you interpret the wording of the qur'an as referring to the revelation (سِحْرَانِ: two magics). But else and that actually is the reading of the qur'an which was spread in all other Muslims cities except with al-Kufa it would mean "two magicians" (سَاحِرَانِ) as it refers to either Musa and Harun or Musa and Muhammad according the interpretations of scholars. Secondly calling it "magical" is rather meant as a mockery or slander and doesn't seem an indication for it being pure and pristine at all. – Medi1Saif Aug 22 at 9:13
  • And where and how this confirms the authenticity of the Torah that the pagans may have heard? I've edited your post. Please consider editing it and adding any information to it. – Medi1Saif Aug 22 at 10:19
  • Can you change your question's topic to an explicit question? – Honey Aug 22 at 15:30

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