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The rule that i've heard is that if a person invalidates the obligatory fasting in Ramadhan (deliberately) because of a certain cause (eating on purpose, zina, drinking alcohol, smoking, etc ) he would have to repent by fasting again afterwards 1 day for each day that he invalidated in Ramadhan or feed 1 poor person for each day which he invalidated. But I don't remmember the source.

I just want to make sure, is there any islamic sources (Quran or Hadiths) or islamic schools (scholars or agreements) that instead says that, in order to repent, the person would have to fast for 60 days afterwards per each 1 day of fasting that he invalidated (on purpose) or feed 60 poor persons for each 1 day that he invalidated at Ramadhan ?

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Replacing one day of fast of Ramadan or making up for Ramadan (obligatory fast) if one has broken his fast due to a valid reason actually is covered in the qur'an in (2:184).

But if one had intercourse intenionally while fasting the kaffara (expiation) is presented in the following hadith:

While we were sitting with the Prophet (ﷺ) a man came and said, "O Allah's Messenger (ﷺ)! I have been ruined." Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) asked what was the matter with him. He replied "I had sexual intercourse with my wife while I was fasting." Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) asked him, "Can you afford to manumit a slave?" He replied in the negative. Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) asked him, "Can you fast for two successive months?" He replied in the negative. The Prophet (ﷺ) asked him, "Can you afford to feed sixty poor persons?" He replied in the negative. The Prophet (ﷺ) kept silent and while we were in that state, a big basket full of dates was brought to the Prophet (ﷺ) . He asked, "Where is the questioner?" He replied, "I (am here)." The Prophet (ﷺ) said (to him), "Take this (basket of dates) and give it in charity." The man said, "Should I give it to a person poorer than I? By Allah; there is no family between its (i.e. Medina's) two mountains who are poorer than I." The Prophet (ﷺ) smiled till his premolar teeth became visible and then said, 'Feed your family with it."

it is either to free a slave, to fast two consecutive months or feed 60 poor people for each day after repenting. Note that there are details on whether both man and woman or only one of them needs to perform a severe expiation.
Via qiyas (analogy) the hanafis and malikis applied this also to a person who deliberately broke his fast by eating or drinking as they say both a person who had intercourse and that who ate or drunk on the day of Ramadan didn't respect this month and the order of fasting in it. While other madhhabs in the later case didn't ask to make up more than one day.

  • In the case of intercourse, I can recognize at least 5 different types of (sinning) intercourses that can invalidate fasting during Ramadhan : (1) Self-intercourse (2) Intercourse with your own wife (3) Intercourse where both man and woman is not married (4) A married man having intercourse with a non married woman (5) A married man having intercourse with another person's wife. Can that expiation be applied to all of these? They are very different in terms of social consequences. Especially if you compare No. 1 with No. 5 for example. – Tomsofty33 May 31 at 2:04
  • @Tomsofty33 it must, but what I meant is rather who initiated the intercourse and whether the second person tried to hinder it to happen and reminded the fact that this is haram etc.. – Medi1Saif May 31 at 5:16
  • Ok but it must? What about for the case of masturbation, does that has to do an expiation of feeding 60 poor person per each day invalidated or at least fast 2 months consecutively for each day invalidated too? – Tomsofty33 May 31 at 16:31
  • You've asked a question and I've answered it. Your "new questions" are either already answered on the site or should be asked as new questions. I'm not in the mood of discussing additional questions. If you have any issue with the given answer your comments are welcome. – Medi1Saif May 31 at 17:43

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