1

I found this quote from an anti-Islamic website :

"The opinion of the majority is that these readings are Mutawatir. However, one opinion is that they are Mashhur28 …. The truth in this regard is that they are Mutawatir from these seven [Qurr’a]. As far as their Tawatur from the Prophet (sws) is concerned, this is debatable. For the chain of narrators of these seven are found in the books of Qira‘at. These chains are transmission from a single person to another and do not fulfil the condition of Tawatur neither from the first narrator to the last nor in between. (Zarkashi, Burhan, 2nd ed., vol. 1, [Beirut: Daru’l-Fikr, 1980] p. 319)"

Can someone shed some light on this matter? Did some Imams including Zarkashi had reservations on the textual veracity of the Qur'an?

  • 1
    The statement of az-Zarkashi has no reservation on the textual vericity of the qur'an at all. It has some reservation against the wide spread saying that qur'an and the qira'at have only been transmitted by tawatur. But the truth is similar to hadith where sahih doesn't necessarily means that a narration has been transmitted by tawatur, however in case of the qur'an one could (approximately) safely say the qur'an and more exactly the qir'aat have been transmitted at least as mashhur. – Medi1Saif Jun 5 at 8:27

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.