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Is the Shia version of zakat different from the Sunni version? AFAIK, the Sunni version of the zakat is based on accumulated wealth every year. And apparently the Shia version of zakat is based on earnings per year?

Is this true?

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According to Fiqh of Shia Islam:

Zakat is of two types, Obligatory and recommended. Obligatory Zakat is again of two types. The Zakat of wealth and the Zakat of body (Fitra). The Zakat of wealth is for nine items: Four food grains (Wheat, barley, dates and dried grapes); Three quadrupeds, (Sheep or goats, cows and camels) and two types of coins, (gold and silver). Zakat of food grains becomes obligatory when wheat, barley, dates or resins reach a particular quantity (Nisab). The Nisab (taxable limit) is fixed at 40 mithqal less than 280 Tabrizi mounds approximately equal to 847 Kilograms. If the cultivation of wheat, barley, dates or resins was carried out by rain water, stream/river or from the moisture of the earth (like the lands of Egypt etc.) the Zakat payable is one-tenth of the total yield. But if it was cultivated with well-water etc. the Zakat is 1/20 (twentieth part / 5.


References:

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Farz zakat is on wealth at one hand and on agriculture at another. Now it has been added by our marjah sistani saheb that is business earnings. However I fail to understand why money which is todays medium of exchange and easy to hoard, is not included as wealth whereas the money in the form of dirham and dinar at the time of our prophet was accepted and was in circulation. Now time has changed all the trasactions take place in paper currency and is absolute replacement of dirham and dinar. In cities now the wealth in form of camel, cow, goats or agriculture etc. is nonexistent. Does it mean that rich of cities not to pay zakat. It does seem to be unacceptable. Many Shia scholar did ijtehat and proved that present day paper currency if anybody has above the nisab will be zakatable. For example seyed baqirussadr, great Shia scholar had the same view.

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