I would like to understand how Muslims reconcile Quran 29:27 and Quran 45:16 with Muhammad being a prophet.
Quran 29:27 "We gave him Isaac and Jacob, and placed the Prophethood and the Book in his progeny..."
Quran 45:16: "And verily We gave the Children of Israel the Scripture and the Command and the Prophethood, and provided them with good things and favored them above all peoples."
This verse seems (on the surface) to suggest the impossibility of Muhammad being a prophet, since the Prophethood was given to the descendants of Isaac and Muhammad is not a descendant of Isaac. Additionally, every other prophet in the previous revelations have all been from the line with the everlasting covenant that is with the Children of Israel and discussed in the Quran
Quran 2:40-41 "O children of Israel! Remember my favors which I bestowed upon you; fulfill your covenant with me and I will fulfill my covenant with you, and fear none but me. Believe in my revelations, which are confirming your Scriptures..."
Quran 2:47 "O Children of Israel, remember My favor that I have bestowed upon you and that I preferred you over all other nations."
And in the Torah
Genesis 17:21 My covenant I will establish with Isaac...
Genesis 21:12 ...in Isaac your seed shall be called
You can see my discussion on this topic here Perhaps you can understand my confusion given the special place that the Israelites had and specifically how the Prophethood was given to the Israelites. I could not find a question on this site addressing this (correct me if I'm wrong), so I look forward to you answers. I would guess the hadiths and tafsirs have plenty to say on this subject.
Does Quran 29:27 not exclude any non-Israelite from being a prophet?