In my country Fajr time starts at 5.30 and I have to wake up at 6.30 to go to work. By waking up at 6.30 or 6.00 and then praying Fajr prayer, do I still get the same rewards as praying at 5.30 ?

  • Salam and welcome to IslamSE the Q&A site about Islam. To learn more about our site and the stackexchange model consider taking the tour and checking our help center. As to your questions the rewards of a deed is a matter only Allah knows about as it is up to him to give rewards. What we could answer if you provided enough information, is about the validity of your prayer or whether it is permissible to pray at that time. We could also inform you that rewards of a prayer in congregation are higher than those if you prayed it alone.
    – Medi1Saif
    Oct 15, 2018 at 6:07

1 Answer 1


As the comment by "Medi1Saif" mentions, we are unaware of the rewards of a deed. That is to say, if there were a function f: S -> R such that S was the set of states of a person, and R was the set of rewards attained, we currently do not know many facts about f. However, it is possible to deduce the following:

Theorem 1

Given two states s_1,s_2\in S, if the only difference between s_1 and s_2 is that s_1 involved a prayer done at the right time and s_2 involved that prayer done late, then f(s_1) > f(s_2).

Proof: Suppose the contrary, that is, doing that prayer late gave you more or equal reward, then 17:78 would encourage one to do an action which lessens one's reward or does not modify it, which is a contradiction given the nature of the Coran (2:2) as a form of guidance. This completes the proof.

Therefore, everything else being equal (this is very important!), one does not get the same rewards when doing a prayer late, due to Theorem 1.


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