I sometimes come across claims that many of the obligations that Muslims have in Islam are a purely personal matter and were not legally enforced, historically. It's not quite clear to me which obligations fall into which category ("purely personal" vs "can/used to be legally enforced"), or whether it's even the case that all behaviors that are fardh can be legally enforced via tazir punishments in case someone does not act on those obligations. I might ask about that in a separate question.

Here I'm specifically wondering about whether the obligation to wear hijab in public can be enforced legally in sharia by the government, perhaps via tazir punishments (or any other way), and when and where it generally was enforced, historically?

  • Probably it is allowed to do so, just look at Saudi-Arabia back in 2016. They even wanted to execute a woman because she refused it. But now Muhammamed bin Salman is changing that policy slightly. Other Asian countries like Afghanistan and Pakistan would still do this to this day forward. I don't think it was enforced in one country but in group of countries as most of the Asian islamic countries (more like Arabic Asian islamic countries) – user24306 Jul 6 '18 at 21:45
  • Can you specify premodern times? Are you talking about the early period in the modern era (like 1500 AD till 1800 AD)? – user24306 Jul 27 '18 at 9:46
  • @Tarik I'm happy with anything before the fall of the Ottoman Empire. – G. Bach Jul 27 '18 at 12:10

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