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A guy in Indonesia claimed that a verse in quran is used for lying.

You can check the case here in bbc-news

In any case,

Is this blasphemy?

In general, is it considered blasphemy to claim that quran is used for lying.

Some muslim commentator go the extra mile saying that the scripture cannot be used for lying. Is this true?

(See here in Indonesian)

A bit detail:

The guy claims people are using Al Maidah 51 to lie. Most people interpret that as lying in general. Politicians are not, in general, honest. However the court interpret that to mean that the interpretation of Al Maidah 51 is a lie. It follows that a string of articles in Indonesia shows that Quranic verses cannot be used for lying.

The translation is here https://translate.google.com/translate?sl=auto&tl=en&js=y&prev=_t&hl=en&ie=UTF-8&u=http%3A%2F%2Frepublika.co.id%2Fberita%2Fkolom%2Ffokus%2F16%2F11%2F11%2Foggavq282-bisakah-ayat-alquran-dipakai-untuk-berbohong&edit-text=&act=url

The conclusion is no.

There is a bit of controversy on Ahok's case.

  1. Ahok isn't attacking those who interpret quran or quran itself. He attacks those farther removed from it. Basically Ahok, and many Indonesians reasonably suspect that a lot of corrupt politicians are losing money because of Ahok. Those politicians that lost bribe because of Ahok's electronic money surveillance want to get their rent seeking biz back. They uses religions to get reelected. My impression is that is what Ahok means by people being lied to. It's not even about religion at all. People are just using religions to get elected so they can steal money.

  2. However, those who wants Ahok fails, claim, that Ahok claims that the verse it self is a lie and or the ulama that interpret the verse was lying.

To simplify this question, if it turns out Ahok means the second interpretation, is it blasphemy.

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  • 1
    Questions about politics are off-topic.
    – UmH
    May 16 '18 at 13:00
  • rephrased question. What about now?
    – user4234
    May 18 '18 at 14:23
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    I'd suggest you to add a summary from the Indonesian article or at least point at what are these claims based on. Once this is cleared either the question is fine or it might be closed as too broad, it depends on the variety of different inquiries that might come up.
    – Medi1Saif ♦
    May 23 '18 at 5:40
  • I did that. The argument is that quranic verse itself cannot lie. However, somehow he concludes that people can't use it for lying.
    – user4234
    Jun 1 '18 at 14:25
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First of all the Qur'an in the Muslim belief is the orally transmitted word of God (Allah):

Rather, the Qur'an is distinct verses [preserved] within the breasts of those who have been given knowledge. And none reject Our verses except the wrongdoers. (29:49)

And it is and it tells the truth:

Indeed, those who disbelieve in the message after it has come to them... And indeed, it is a mighty Book. (41)
Falsehood cannot approach it from before it or from behind it; [it is] a revelation from a [Lord who is] Wise and Praiseworthy. (41:41-42)

so who ever claims otherwise is committing blasphemy.

Now when it comes to the interpretation this is the human part related to the Qur'an and it can include mistakes.

So basically the statement that Qur'an can be used for lying or misguiding or as an instrument for whatever reason includes some truth. As it is based on the (human) interpretation of a verse that people may apply or follow. But the claim is somewhat risky depending on it's value of truth. So in case it is true (and one can prove it) there's no harm in saying so else it could be blasphemous.

Now I think that the statement or meaning of verse (5:51) has been discussed and clarified in Is Indonesian Muslim being Lied to by Al Maidah 51? Muslims in a state with a Muslim majority shouldn't be lead by a non-Muslim.

As far as I understand the linked bbc-news article Ahok in fact said that some scholars use the Qur'an for lying (or the Qur'an is used for lying), as scholars are human and therefore make mistakes (and do sin) and therefore blasphemy in this case is out of question unless one can clearly show that he actually is attacking the Qur'an not those who interpret it!

“All the sons of Adam are sinners, but the best of sinners are those who repent often.” (See for example in Bulugh al-Maram)

Nevertheless the whole matter is a bit delicate on one hand one shouldn't use Qur'an verses in a wrong way as this is frowned upon and could even be considered as haram on the other hand it is easy to create a connection between accusing a scholar to defaming or mocking the Qur'an (which is indeed blasphemous). Also note that it is hard to judge the intention of others therefore it is arguable to consider a non-Muslim attacking Muslim scholars and interpreting the Qur'an himself as blasphemy even if certainly a milder judgement could also be possible.

So to answer you briefly -after the last modification-:

case 1: is treated above and isn't blasphemy, but one could willingly or for reasons -hopefully good ones- interpret some blasphemy into it.

case 2: is indeed blasphemy or at least close to it: If what you mean is Ahok thinks the verse is a lie. If he claimed the scholars who interpret it as shown in the linked answer are lying it is not blasphemy but certainly a wrongdoing which could be considered as insulting (See also: What is considered 'insulting a Muslim'? And is it a sin? If so, is it a minor or major scene?)

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3
  • Ahok isn't attacking those who interpret quran. He attacks those farther removed from it. Basically Ahok, and most Indonesians suspect that a lot of corrupt politicians are losing money because of Ahok. Those politicians that lost bribe because of Ahok's electronic money surveillance want to get their rent seeking biz back. They uses religions to get reelected. My impression is that is what Ahok means by people being lied to. It's not even about religion at all. People are just using religions to get elected so they can steal money.
    – user4234
    Aug 1 '18 at 11:21
  • @SharenEayrs politics are hardly on topic, whether one uses the Qur'an for lying or to misguide others or for ones own profit by a wrong or falsely interpretation is one thing and it is certainly a sin. Using religion for worldly matters is one of the reasons that led Muslims to what they are now, weak, disunited (as both countries and communities) and dependent on others. All this would have been considered by earlier Muslims as a fitna (temptation) and scholars of that era would regard this as inacceptable.
    – Medi1Saif ♦
    Aug 1 '18 at 12:09
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    I am not muslim. But most of us think that some politicians have indeed uses islam (or any other religions) for their own worldly gain. The question is whether muslims consider such opinion blasphemy. You seem to share my opinion on that one.
    – user4234
    Aug 1 '18 at 14:31

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