The Islam page on RationalWiki seems to be in a state where it's simultaneously edited by people who have a pro-Islam bias and people who have an anti-Islam bias. It's current form has a section entitled "Muslims apologetic obfuscation", and quotes the Qur'an:

Because of that, We decreed upon the Children of Israel that whoever kills a soul unless for a soul or for corruption [done] in the land - it is as if he had slain mankind entirely. And whoever saves one - it is as if he had saved mankind entirely. And our messengers had certainly come to them with clear proofs. Then indeed many of them, [even] after that, throughout the land, were transgressors.
Qur'an 5:32

RationalWiki then writes:

So [the] Qur'an is referring to a verse in Jewish scripture, which is not the same as ordaining something to Muslims.

My opinion is that this is an obtuse interpretation, but let's give this some consideration.

Question: Is there a concrete reason that Qur'an 5:32 applies to modern-day Muslims, and not only to the "Children of Israel"?

I've read various news articles quoting scholars quote this ayah as applying to all Muslims (perhaps after some terrorist atrocity). I'm also aware that there's other verses that prohibit specific kinds of murder (4:93 and 6:151).

  • Is your question about if the ruling applies to modern-day Muslims? Why did you specify "modern-day" and not Muslims since the time of the Prophet (for instance)? The story is about the sons of Adam. The ordinance started during the time of Bani Israel with the Torah; prior to that, this ordinance was not revealed. The reason Banu Israel was mentioned is that they had the most killing among themselves. Is your question about applicability today is that "modern-day Muslims" kill a lot as Banu Israel did in the past? – III-AK-III Mar 12 '18 at 9:22
  • Or is your question about whether the ordinance applies to "modern-day Muslims" (which is the case, but not just modern-day and not just Muslims)? The ruling applies to Bani Israel and to all others at all times (rule: what counts is the general meaning of the words, not the specific reason for revelation), same as Banu Israel being the reason that Allah ordained food to become stale with time; it started during the time of Bani Israel, because of them, but it applies to all at all times. – III-AK-III Mar 12 '18 at 9:24
  • I'm motivated by the Rational Wiki quote, which cases doubt that 5:32 applies now (hence, "modern-day"). I recognize the same justification would likely apply to any other time period after that verse is revealed. – Rebecca J. Stones Mar 12 '18 at 9:32
  • 2
    The thing to contemplate is that why does the Quran relate stories about the Children of Israel to us if the lessons and laws in them do not apply to the Muslims. Every word in the Quran is there for a purpose, the rule in exegesis of the Quran is that anything narrated about them is applicable to us unless there is explicit evidence for its abrogation. This applies to Qisas, meat of carnivores etc. – UmH Mar 12 '18 at 11:09

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