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It is my understanding that the reason God needed to deliver a teaching to Mohammed in the first place is because the Jews and Christians irredeemably strayed from the teachings of Moses and Jesus.

Does Islam have an opinion on approximately when

  • The Jews strayed from Moses
  • The Jews strayed from Jesus
  • The Christians strayed from Jesus

to the extent that another prophet was needed?

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    It is my understanding that the reason God needed to deliver a teaching to Mohammed in the first place is because the Jews and Christians irredeemably strayed from the teachings of Moses and Jesus. I am not sure that this is correct. Islamic belief holds that Muhammad was Abraham's supplication for his son Ishmael, also that he was prophesied in the Torah and promised by Jesus as his successor: part of the Messianic promise. As such he was part of the plan and not a reaction. – UmH Nov 9 '17 at 15:00
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Yes. This is one of the things that is thoroughly explained in Quran, in many verses.

To make it short, both absolutely went wrong when they denied the prophet Muhammad as a prophet, since both Jews and Christians teachings has told that there was to be another prophet coming. This has already indicated that their teaching was not yet complete until the final prophet has come. So, in other words, the prophet Muhammad was sent as a prophecy not because the Jews and Christians went wrong, but because the teaching was not yet complete.

If they hadn't denied the prophet Muhammad when he came, certainly they would be forgiven of previous wrongdoings. Two notable examples of each wrongdoings and hence gives a vague start of when they turned wrong:

  • Jews killing the prophets that they denied (QS 2:87, 2:61). This could be easily looked up of which prophets they killed. And the reasoning is also explained in Quran is being arrogant, and out of the limits of the limits.
  • Christians denies that there is only one God (major shirk) and made others to be equal as Allah. (QS 4:171, 5:72-75, 5:116, 19:88-93)

Reference:

  • I know of Jewish prophecy that speaks of a prophet to come (e.g. Devarim 19:15). To which Christian teaching(s) are you referring? The muslimpath.com page only refers to biographies of Muhammad and historical accounts of individuals who said that he was the predicted prophet. Can you give references to actual teachings? – mojo Nov 10 '17 at 5:23
  • @mojo unfortunately I am not too intimate with details of Christian teachings, hence I can't give you details for the moment. I am aware though that Christian teachings are based on Jewish scriptures. So, it should refer to the same scripture that speaks of a prophet to come. The muslimpath.com refers to one instance that a Christian monk (which I would assume understands Christian's teaching) recognizes the signs of a prophet from his scriptures, so that should be an indication that there is such teaching in Christian. In any case, the OP did asked from Islam's perspective. – Syakur Rahman Nov 10 '17 at 5:37
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    I was only asking about the claim—if there were details. The personal beliefs of individuals is not as forceful of an argument as information from the sources they claim to be divine. – mojo Nov 10 '17 at 5:42
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    @mojo Classic works usually cite the paracelete as referring to Muhammad, some argue using the hebrew translation menahem. – UmH Nov 10 '17 at 5:54
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    @mojo (and others) the correct reference is Devarim (Deuteronomy) 18:15, and this reference to an Israelite prophet, not an Ishmaelite, which Muhammad is. So he can't fulfill this prophecy. Additionally, Christian teaching and Scripture strongly implicates Jesus as the fulfillment of that prophecy, not needing any other. Finally, the paraclete is certainly not Muhammad or any other human nor can it be, as Jesus said of the Comfortor (Holy Spirit, paraclete), "he will be with you forever" and that the paraclete will be with all believers (at the same time), and thus can't be human. – Alex Strasser Dec 5 '18 at 22:41
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If you read Quran, it is mentioned that Jews go wrong when they disbelieved in Jesus Christ (pbuh) and they still think that Jesus didn’t came to them and they think that Jesus will come one day, and as for Christians, they disbelieved when they committed shirk. And when Jews heard that prophet Muhammad will come, they tried to harm him when he was young according to Quran.

And that is how People of Book go wrong.

If you see something wrong, you have the right to edit my answer.

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It is my understanding that the reason God needed to deliver a teaching to Mohammed in the first place is because the Jews and Christians irredeemably strayed from the teachings of Moses and Jesus.

I understand that the Quran talks many times about children of Israel, but not all the time, neither half. I do not know in what reasoning the "first place" part is based on.

(...) Christians irredeemably strayed from the teachings of Moses and Jesus.

I think that assumption is wrong since irredeemably strayed is something like away from God, and near the evil, this kind of (anti-)followers are presented in all forms in all ethnic groups.

The Jews strayed from Moses The Jews strayed from Jesus The Christians strayed from Jesus

Continuing I think its hard to know what versicle was targeting what specific "ethnic" religious group or if (God) intended to target one at all (this implies discriminating other groups). Since praying, fasting, believing in One God, believing that something else is a deity can applies to ethnic and non-ethnic muslims, christians, jews, etc. Any of them can be strayed from the messengers of God (Jesus, Moses, etc.).

The Quran even talks about people that usually lived in forests that didn't believe in one God, most of all are extinguish, so I can even ask the same question regarding only the people that lived in the forests. (26:176)

It's a matter of authenticity and making your path more easy. The reason God, gives a proof in Arabic that has no contradictions and its a miracle in its reasoning form, if we can consider "reasoning" science. Assuming that the main target was the Jews or Christians its wrong because its referenced that its a message for all humanity. (12:104) So God did discriminate no group when He teached the messenger.

Does Islam have an opinion on approximately when

Christians have a central foundation that it is in Vatican, Islam doesn't have that kind of central foundation that potentially give an opinion. But I'm answering the answer as Christian (follower of the Book).

Islam means Submission to God, in that context my direct answer is no, since its a matter of opinion, and I think God is the One that can give you the answer that would be more than a opinion, but a answer full of truth and science.

Everyone of the Jewish, Islamics, Muslims, etc, will be rewarded according to their doings as it is in this versicle (2:62). So even if you think that the bad example from the Quran, is from a ethnic jew, arab, or christian, or you interpret in that way, all of them must follow the good example, not only the jews or christians. (2:148)

When did the Jews/Christians go wrong?

In my view: The Jews go wrong if they forget God. When they do sins. Do not follow its own book. (Torah as good reference - It's referenced in the Quran)

The Christians: When they forget God. When they do sins. When they do not follow the Salms and the Envagelho (Jesus), referenced in the Quran too.

To any of both groups that recieved the Quran revelation:: When they forget God. When they do sins. When they forget to following the Quran (or the previous Books, if they are sacred - referenced in the Quran, such as the Torah, Salms).

So in the Quran (and the Torah) you find many examples that applies to every group, and not a specific one. (I'll assume for example that forgetting God is the main one).

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